DMRC JE (Electronics) Paper 1- Technical Questions with Answers

1. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Digital modulation techniques are used in satellite communication systems since:
(1) They are easier to handle
(2) Large bandwidth utilization is possible
(3) They have a higher spectral efficiency
(4) They are less prone to interference

Answer : They are less prone to interference

2. How many bits are required to encode 32 level PCM:

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

Answer : 5

3. The noise is more dominant in which of the following:

(1) PAM
(2) PWM
(3) PPM
(4) FSK

Answer : PAM

4. The phase velocity of wave propagating in a hollow metal wave guide is:

(1) Greater than the velocity of the light in free space
(2) Less than the velocity of the light in free space
(3) Equal to the velocity of the light in free space
(4) Equal to the group velocity

Answer : Greater than the velocity of the light in free space

5. The magnitude of the open-circuit and short circuit input impedance of a transmission line are 100 ohm and 25 ohm respectively. The characteristic impedance of line is:

(1) 25 ohm
(2) 50 ohm
(3) 75 ohm
(4) 100 ohm

Answer : 50 ohm

6. The line of sight communication requires transmit and receive antenna to face each other. If the transmit antenna is vertically polarized, for the best reception the receive antenna should be:

(1) Horizontally polarized
(2) Vertically polarized
(3) At 45° with respect to the horizontal polarization
(4) At 45° with respect to the vertical polarization

Answer : Horizontally polarized

7. A network contains linear resistance and ideal voltage source. If the value of all the resistors are doubled, then the voltage across each resistor is:

(1) Halved
(2) Doubled
(3) Increased by four times
(4) Not changed

Answer : Not changed

8.Twelve 1 ohm resistances are used as edge to form a cube. The resistance between two diagonally opposite corners of the cube is:

(1) 5/6 ohm
(2) 1 ohm
(3) 6/5 ohm
(4) 3/2 ohm

Answer :  5/6 ohm

9. An eight bit digital data 10101100 is fed to an ADC. The reference voltage is +10V. The analog output voltage will be:

(1) 1.05V
(2) 6.74V
(3) 10.10V
(4) 5.15V

Answer : 6.74V

10. A series RLC circuit has a resonant frequency of 1 KHz and a quality factor Q = 100. If each of the R,L and C is doubled from its original value, the new Q of the circuit is:

(1) 25
(2) 50
(3) 100
(4) 200

Answer : 200

11. The input to a coherent detector is DSB-SC signal plus noise. The noise at the detector output is:

(1) The in-phase component
(2) The quadrature-component
(3) Zero
(4) The envelope

Answer :  Zero

12. Gunn diode is a:

(1) Negative resistance device
(2) Positive resistance device
(3) High noise device
(4) Low frequency device

Answer : Negative resistance device

13. The intrinsic carrier concentration of silicon sample at 300° K is 2.5×1016/m3. If after doping, the number of majority carriers is 5×1020 /m3, the minority carrier density is:

(1) 1.25×1012/m 3
(2) 0.125×1012/m3
(3) 2.5×1020/m3
(4) 0.5×104/m3

Answer : 1.25×1012/m 3 

14. The unit of ∇× H is:

(1) Ampere
(2) Ampere/meter
(3) Ampere/meter2
(4) Ampere-meter

Answer : Ampere/meter2

15. A PIN diode is:

(1) A metal semiconductor point-contact diode
(2) A microwave mixer diode
(3) Often used as a microwave detector
(4) Suitable for use as a microwave switch

Answer : Suitable for use as a microwave switch

16. 11001, 1001 and 111001 correspond to the 2’s complement representation of which one of the following sets of number?

(1) 25, 9 and 57 respectively
(2) –6, –6 and –6 respectively
(3) –7, –7 and –7 respectively
(4) –25, –9 and –57 respectively

Answer : –7, –7 and –7 respectively

17. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, it is best to use a:

(1) A slotted line
(2) Balun
(3) Directional coupler
(4) Quarter wave line transformer

Answer : Balun

18. Which of the following is used extensively where lowest power consumption is necessary?

(1) CMOS
(2) NMOS
(3) PMOS
(4) Any of the abov

Answer : CMOS 

19. Reflex klystron is a:

(1) Low power generator
(2) High power oscillator
(3) Low gain amplifier
(4) Not an oscillator

Answer : Low power generator

20. If the radiated power of AM transmitter is 10 KW, the power in the carrier for modulation index of 0.6 is nearly:

(1) 8.24 KW
(2) 9.26 KW
(3) 8.47 KW
(4) 9.6 KW

Answer : 8.47 KW

21. The current through 8 ohms branch is:

(1) 1A
(2) 0.5A
(3) 1.5A
(4) None of these

Answer : 0.5A

22. JFET in properly biased condition acts as a:
(1) Current controlled current source
(2) Voltage controlled voltage source
(3) Voltage controlled current source
(4) Impedance controlled current source

Answer : Voltage controlled current source

23. The circuit shown in figure is best described as a:

(1) Bridge rectifier
(2) Ring modulator
(3) Frequency discriminatory
(4) Voltage doubler

Answer : Voltage doubler

24. Which amplifier will be preferred for highest gain?

(1) Darlington pair
(2) Cascade amplifier
(3) Cascode amplifier
(4) Depends on the circuitry

Answer :  Cascode amplifier

25. The Boolean expression for the truth table shown is:

Answer : Option 1

26. Without any additional circuitry, an 8:1 MUX can be used to obtain:

(1) Some but not all Boolean functions of 3 variables
(2) All function of 3 variables but none of 4 variables
(3) All functions of 3 variables and some but not all of 4 variables
(4) All functions of 4 variables

Answer : All functions of 4 variables

27. The resolution of a potentiometer should be:

(1) Zero
(2) Low
(3) High
(4) Infinite

Answer : Infinite

28. Negative feedback in amplifier:

(1) Improves the SNR at input
(2) Improve SNR at output
(3) Reduces distortion
(4) Decreases bandwidth

Answer : Reduces distortion

29. Spectral density expresses:

(1) Average voltage
(2) Average current
(3) Average power in a waveform as a function of frequency
(4) None of these

Answer : Average power in a waveform as a function of frequency

30. Which of the following is used as a data selector?
(1) Encoder
(2) Decoder
(3) Multiplexer
(4) De-multiplexer

Answer : Multiplexer

31. If a signal x(n)=x(–n), then it is called ____ signal:

(1) Odd
(2) Energy
(3) Power
(4) Even

Answer : Even

32. The response of an LTI/LSI system is given by the _______ of input and impulse response:

(1) Convolution
(2) Correlation
(3) Superposition
(4) None

Answer : Convolution

33. Companders are used in communication systems to:

(1) Compress bandwidth
(2) To improve frequency response
(3) To improve signal to noise ratio
(4) None of these

Answer : To improve signal to noise ratio

34. ICB0 in a transistor can be reduced by reducing:

(1) IB
(2) VCC
(3) IE
(4) Temperature

Answer : Temperature

34. Light is confined within the core of a simple optical fiber by:

(1) Refraction.
(2) Total internal reflection at the outer edge of the cladding.
(3) Total internal reflection at the core cladding boundary.
(4) Reflection from the fiber's plastic coating.

Answer : Total internal reflection at the outer edge of the cladding.

36. The complement of AB+BC’+CD’ is:

(1) A’CD+B’C’+B’D
(2) A’C’+BC+AB’D’
(4) A’C’+B’C’+A’B’D’

Answer : A’CD+B’C’+B’D

37. The following expression when simplified will become XY(X’YZ +X’Y’Z’+XY’Z)

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) –1
(4) X

Answer : 0

38. In a PCM system of telemetry, the quantization noise depends on:

(1) The sampling rate and quantization level
(2) The sampling rate only
(3) The number of quantization level
(4) Information provided is not sufficient

Answer : The number of quantization level

39. In PCM system, if we increase the quantization levels from 2 to 8, the relative bandwidth requirements will:

(1) Be doubled
(2) Remain same
(3) Be tripled
(4) Becomes eight times

Answer : Be tripled

40. The modulation system inherently most noise resistant is:

(1) Frequency modulation
(2) Pulse width modulation
(3) Pulse code modulation
(4) Phase modulation

Answer : Pulse code modulation

41. Which of the following microphone does not require polarizing current?

(1) Crystal microphone
(2) Condenser microphone
(3) Carbon microphone
(4) All of the above

Answer : Crystal microphone

42. The large signal bandwidth of an opamp is limited by its:

(1) Loop gain
(2) Slew rate
(3) Output impedance
(4) Input frequency

Answer : Slew rate

43. In an unclocked R-S flip flop made of NOR gates, the forbidden input condition is:

(1) R=0, S=0
(2) R=1, S=0
(3) R=0, S=1
(4) R=1, S=1

Answer : R=1, S=1

44. A phase-locked loop (PLL) is a feedback circuit consisting of a:

(1) Phase detector.
(2) Low-pass filter.
(3) VCO.
(4) All of these

Answer : All of these

45. A 339 IC is an example of a fourteen-pin DIP that can be made to function as a ________:

(1) Comparator
(2) 555 timer
(3) D to A converter
(4) Ladder network

Answer : Comparator

46. Filters with the ___ characteristic are useful when a rapid roll-off is required because it provides a roll-off rate greater than –20/dB/decade/pole:

(1) Butterworth
(2) Chebyshev
(3) Bessel
(4) Elliptical

Answer : Chebyshev

47. Which of the following applications include a phase-locked loop (PLL) circuit?

(1) Modems
(2) AM decoders
(3) Tracking filters
(4) All of these

Answer : All of these

48. Rectification efficiency of a fullwave rectifier without filter is nearly equals to:

(1) 51%
(2) 61%
(3) 71%
(4) 81%

Answer : 81%

49. What is the voltage resolution of an 8-stage ladder network?

(1) Vref /128
(2) Vref /256
(3) Vref /512
(4) Vref /1024

Answer : Vref /256

50. In which region is the operating point stable in tunnel diodes?

(1) Negative-resistance
(2) Positive-resistance
(3) Both negative- and positive-resistance
(4) Neither negative- nor positive-resistance

Answer : Negative-resistance

51. Which of the following diodes is limited to the reverse-bias region in its region of operation?

(1) Schottky
(2) Tunnel
(3) Photodiode
(4) Rectifier

Answer : Photodiode

52. Which of the following semiconductor materials is (are) used for manufacturing solar cells?

(1) Gallium arsenide
(2) Indium arsenide
(3) Cadmium sulfide
(4) All of these

Answer : All of these

53. If Y (s) - {(S 2 - 1)/8}, the network has:

(1) 1 H inductor and 1 F capacitor in parallel
(2) 1 H inductor and 1 F capacitor in series
(3) 1 H inductor and 1 Ω resistor in series
(4) 1 H inductor and 1 Ω resistor in parallel

Answer : 1 H inductor and 1 F capacitor in parallel

54. When the temperature of a doped semiconductor is increased, its conductivity

(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Does not change
(4) Increases or decreases depending on whether it is p-type or n-type

Answer : Increases

55. Schering bridge is used to measure

(1) Frequency
(2) Inductance
(3) Capacitance
(4) Mutual Inductance

Answer : Capacitance

56. A step voltage E is applied to a series R-L circuit. The rate of change of current is maximum at t = _:

(1) Zero
(2) Infinity
(3) L/R
(4) R/L

Answer : Zero

57. PLAs, CPLDs, and FPGAs are all which type of device?

(1) SLD
(2) PLD
(4) SRAM

Answer : PLD

58. Holding current for an SCR is best described as:

(1) The minimum current required for turn-off
(2) The current required before an SCR will turn on
(3) The amount of current required to maintain conduction
(4) The gate current required to maintain conduction

Answer : The amount of current required to maintain conduction

59. What type of temperature coefficient do thermistors have?

(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Either positive or negative
(4) None of these

Answer : ​Either positive or negative

60. In a microprocessor:

(1) One machine cycle is equal to one clock cycle
(2) One clock cycle consists of several machine cycles
(3) One machine cycle consists of several clock cycles
(4) One machine cycle is always less than one clock cycle

Answer : One machine cycle consists of several clock cycles

61. In 8085 microprocessor with memory mapped I/O which of the following is true?

(1) I/O devices have 16 bit addresses
(2) I/O devices are accessed during IN and OUT instructions
(3) There can be a maximum of 256 input and 256 output devices
(4) Logic operations can not be performed

Answer :  I/O devices have 16 bit addresses

62. A blank EPROM has:

(1) All bits set to logical 0
(2) All bits set to logical 1
(3) Half the total number of bits set to 0 and remaining half to logical 1
(4) Either (1) or (2)

Answer : All bits set to logical 1

63. One application of a digital multiplexer is to facilitate:

(1) Code conversion
(2) Parity checking
(3) Parallel-to-serial data conversion
(4) Data generation

Answer :  Parallel-to-serial data conversion

64. The coefficient of coupling between two coils is 0.45. The first coil has an inductance of 75 mH and the second coil has an inductance of 105 mH. What is the mutual inductance between the coils?

(1) 3.54 mH
(2) 7.88 mH
(3) 39.9 mH
(4) 189.3 mH

Answer : 39.9 mH

65. The fast carry or look-ahead carry circuits found in most 4-bit parallel-adder circuits:

(1) Increase ripple delay
(2) Add a 1 to complemented inputs
(3) Reduce propagation delay
(4) Determine sign and magnitude

Answer :  Reduce propagation delay

66. To multiply a number by 8 in 8085 we have to use RAL instruction:

(1) Once
(2) Twice
(3) Thrice
(4) Four times

Answer : Thrice

67. An energy signal has G(f) = 10. Its energy density spectrum is:

(1) 10
(2) 100
(3) 50
(4) 20

Answer : 100

68. Feedback factor at the frequency of oscillation of a Wien bridge oscillator is:

(1) 3
(2) 1/3
(3) 1/29
(4) 3/29

Answer : 1/3

69. A 4-bit R/2R digital-to-analog (DAC) converter has a reference of 5 volts. What is the analog output for the input code 1010:
(1) 0.3125 V
(2) 3.125 V
(3) 0.78125 V
(4) –3.125 V

Answer :  3.125 V

70. A quarter wave line open circuited at far end behaves as:

(1) Inductance
(2) L and C in parallel
(3) Capacitance
(4) L and C in series

Answer : L and C in series

71. In a directional coupler:

(1) Isolation (dB) equals coupling plus directivity
(2) Coupling (dB) equals isolation plus directivity
(3) Directivity (dB) equals isolation plus coupling
(4) Isolation (dB) equals (coupling) (directivity)

Answer : Isolation (dB) equals coupling plus directivity

72. In a circular waveguide the dominant mode is:

(1) TE01
(2) TE11
(3) TE20
(4) TE21

Answer : TE11

73. In a klystron amplifier the input cavity is called:

(1) Buncher
(2) Catcher
(3) Pierce gun
(4) Collector

Answer : Buncher

74. A loss less line of characteristic impedance Z0 is terminated in pure reactance of –jZ0 value. VSWR is

(1) 10
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) Infinity

Answer : Infinity

75. The velocity factor of a transmission line depends on:

(1) Temperature
(2) Skin effect
(3) Relative permittivity of dielectric
(4) None of these

Answer : Relative permittivity of dielectric

General science facts in hindi for ssc cgl chsl upsc

  1. सर्वाधिक प्रकाश - संश्लेषणी कि्रया-कलाप प्रकाश के हरे व पीले क्षेत्र में चलता है।
  2. एडस वायरस दोहरी सूची डी0 एन0 ए0 होता है।
  3. शराब पीकर वाहन चालन के लिए श्वसन परीक्षण में यातायात पुलिस फिल्टर पेपर पर हल्दी (टरमरिक) इस्तेमाल करती है।
  4. एंग्लो-नूबियन बकरी की नस्ल है।
  5. अम्लीय किस्म की मिटटी में जिप्सम का प्रयोग करके उसे फसल उगाने के उपयुक्त बनाया जा सकता है।
  6. रेडार का अविष्कार ए0 एच0 टेलर व लियो सी0 यंग ने किया ।
  7. मैडम क्यूरी ने दो बार नोबल पुरस्कार प्राप्त किया है।
  8.  खाध श्रृखला से अभिप्राय एक जीव से दूसरे जीव को ऊर्जा - अंतरण होना है।
  9. सीसा , विशाल संख्या में स्वचालित वाहनों वाले नगर की वायु को प्रदूषित कर देती है।
  10. एस्ट्रोजेन , स्त्रीलिंग हार्मोन है।
  11. खाने का सोडा का रासायनिक नाम सोडियम बार्इकार्वोनेट है।
  12. पर्वतो पर आच्छादित हिम , सूर्य की गर्मी द्वारा एक साथ नही पिघलता क्याकि इसकी विशिष्ट ऊष्मा कम होती है।
  13. परमाणु - पाइल का प्रयोग ताप-नाभिकीय संलयन के प्रचालन में किया जाता है।
  14. कठोर शरीरिक श्रम करने वाले श्रमिकों की हथेंलियों तथा तलवों की त्वचा मोटा अवतत्वक ऊतक हो जाने का कारण है।
  15. मानव शरीर में डीहाइड्रेशन जल की कमी के कारण होता है।
  16. परखनली शिशु के संबंध में अंडे का निशेचन मा के शरीर से बाहर किया जाता है 
  17. किसी वृक्ष की आयु का निर्धारण विकास वलय के आधार पर किया जाता है।
  18. मानव में गुर्दे का रोग कोबाल्ट प्रदूषण के होता है।
  19. मूगफली पौधे के फलों को भूमि के नीचे पाया जाता है।
  20. साइलेंट वैली में दुर्लभ और नष्टप्राय: पशु शेर की पूछ जैसा मैकाक्यू है।
  21. कोर्इ भी नाब डूब जाएगी , अगर वह पानी अपने आयतन के बराबर हटाती है।
  22. क्षुद्रग्रह सूर्य के चारों ओर मंगल और वृहस्पति के बीच चक्कर लगाते है।
  23. ऐक्सो - जीवन विज्ञान में बाहय ग्रहों तथा अंतरिक्ष में जीवन का अध्ययन किया जाता है।
  24. जन्तुओं में वह एन्जाइम प्रणाली नही होती जिसके आधार पर वे पानी से ऊर्जा प्राप्त कर सकते है।
  25. क्लोन एक समान आनुवंशिक संघटन वाली कोशिकाए की कालोनी है।
  26. कीटों द्वारा परागित फूलों को परागकण रूक्ष और चिपचिपे होते है।
  27. अनाज के परिरक्षण के लिए सोडियम बेंजाएट पदार्थ का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
  28. ऐस्बेस्टास द्वारा फैला रोग वातस्फीति होता है।
  29. आख में वर्णदर्शन शंकु की मौजूदगी से प्रभावित हेाता है।
  30. प्रिज्म में प्रकाश के विभिन्न रंगो का विभाजन प्रकाश का परिक्षेपण होता है।
  31. उत्तरी गोलार्ध के दायें पवनों का विक्ष्ेापण पृथ्वी के घूर्णन द्वारा होता है।
  32. यदि स्थिर वेग से चल रही गाडी में बैठा कोर्इ बालक गेंद को वायु में सीधा ऊपर फेंके तो गेंद उसके हाथ में गिरेगी।
  33. पृथ्वी के गुरूत्वाकर्शण क्षेत्र की तीव्रता विषुवत रेखा पर होती है।
  34. बाइसिकल के पहिए में प्रयुक्त अरें उसका जडत्व आघूर्ण बढाती है।
  35. ट्रांसफार्मर अन्योय प्रेरण के सिध्दांत पर कार्य करता है।
  36. प्राकृतिक रबड को अधिक मजबूत और उच्छल बनाने के लिए उसमें सल्फर मिलाया जाता है।
  37. डिटरजेंट वसा अम्लो के सोडियम लवण होते है।
  38. विकिरण चिकित्सा में आरगान गैस का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
  39. स्टील में .1 से 2 प्रतिशत कार्बन होता है।
  40. मेघ बीजन (क्लाउड सीडिंग) या कृत्रिम वर्षा के लिए आम तौर पर सिल्वर आयोडायड प्रयुक्त रासायनिक द्रव्य है।
  41. एक एलाय , जर्मन सिल्वर में सिल्वर धातु नही होती है।
  42. आक्सीजन , जो जीवन के लिए अत्यावश्यक है , प्रकाश संशलेषण का उत्पाद है जल से आती है।
  43. मानव वयस्क के मस्तिश्क का वनज 1200 से 1300 ग्राम होता है।
  44. पुरुष में असिथयों की कुल संख्या 206 होती है।
  45. एक फोटो सेल में प्रकाश ऊर्जा को रासायनिक ऊर्जा में परिवर्तित किया जाता है।
  46.  विश्व्  स्वास्थ्य संगठन के अनुसार बर्ड फ्लू के वाइरस का संचरण उस भोजन के माध्यम से नही हो सकता जिसे 70 डिग्री सेलिसयस से ऊपर पकाया गया हो।
  47. कंप्यूटर के लिए आर्इ सी चिप आमतौर पर सिलिकान के बनाये जाते है।
  48. शीतकाल में एक मोटी कमीज की अपेक्षा दो पतली कमीजें हमें अधिक गरम रखती है क्येाकि दो कमीजों के बीच वायु की परत रोधी माध्यम के रूप में काम करती है।
  49. पृथ्वी के वायुमंडल की आयनमंडल परत रेडियो तरंगो को वापस पृथ्वी के पृष्ठ पर परावर्तित करती है।
  50. ध्वनि निर्वात से नही गुजरती है।
  51. पेट्रोल से लगी आग को बुझाने में जल प्रभावी नही होता क्योकि जल और पेट्रोल एक दूसरे में अमिश्रणीय है और पेट्रोल ऊपरी परत बनाता है अत: जलता रहता है।
  52. गैस के गुब्बारों में हाइड्रोजन की जगह हीलियम गैस का प्रयोग किया जाता है क्योकि यह अदाह है।
  53. फलों को कृत्रिम रूप से पकाने के लिये एसिटिलीन गैस है।
  54. माणिक्य और नीलम ऐलुमिनियम के आक्साइड है।
  55. विटामिन बी 12 को अपनी सक्रियता के लिए कोबाल्ट की आवश्यकता होती है
  56. अश्रु गैस का घटक क्लोरोपिकि्रन है ।
  57. दृढतांक अनुदैध्र्य प्रतिबल के साथ अनुदैध्र्य विकृति का अनुपात है।
  58. गैस में ध्वनि संचरण में रूद्वोश्म संपीडन और विरलन से होता है।
  59. परमाणु घडी सीजियम के संक्रमण पर आधारित है।
  60. अवतल लेंस में हमेशा आभासी और सीधा प्रतिबिम्ब बनता है।
  61. भारी पानी का क्वथनांक साधारण पानी से कम नही हो सकता है।
  62. प्रकाश संशलेषण में ऊर्जा मुक्त होती है।
  63. वृक्ष के तनो में रहने वाले प्राणियों को वृक्षवासी कहा जाता है।
  64. माइटोकानिड्रअन को सेल का पावर प्लांट भी कहा जाता है।
  65. सिरके का रासायनिक नाम ऐसीटिक ऐसिड है।
  66. अधिकतम जैव विविधता वाला प्रदेश उश्ण कटिबंधीय होता है।
  67. वातावरण के अंदर क्षैतिज ऊष्मा अंतरण को संवहन कहा जाता है।
  68. भारतीय मानक समय 82.5 डिग्री र्इ0 रेखांश पर अपनाया जाता है।
  69. तट पर अधिक बल के साथ पहुचने वाली भूकम्पी सागर तरंगो को सुनामी कहा जाता है।
  70. पवन की अपोहन कि्रया के कारण बने गर्तो को यारडांग कहा जाता है।
  71. शोर को डेसिबल में मापा जाता है।

Syllabus , Books and Previous Year Question Paper of UP Police SI Exam

The Uttar Pradesh Police Department is inviting applications for the recruitment on 2500 posts of Sub-Inspector (SI) under its fresh SI recruitment 2015. now those who are prepare for this examination or who will apply for this posts can check here the latest exam syllabus and previous exam question paper also download pdf file in Hindi of UP SI exam syllabus from here check the full details here

UP Police SI Syllabus 2015 :-

General Hindi:- Tatsam & Tadbhav, Sandhi, Samas, Ras, Paryaywachi, Lokokti and Muhavre, Ling, Vachan, Kaarak, Kaal, Beloom, Anekarthi Shabd, Alankar.

Law & Constitution:- General Knowledge about Indian Constitution, Aim of Constitution, Fundamental Rights, Directive principles, Rules & Regulations of constitutional Amendments, All India Service, Information about social Law related to women, children, Reservation of SC/ ST, Environment, Wild Life Conservation, Human Rights, Traffic Rules, National Security Issues, Principle of Crime Punishment, Right of Self Defence, General Knowledge about Law.

General Knowledge :- Questions will be designed to test the ability of the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighboring countries especially pertaining to Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic scene, General Polity including Indian Constitution and Scientific Research etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline. This is topic is huge so applicants are advised to go through Newspaper daily and read good GK books and other notes.

General Intelligence:- It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. The test will include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discriminating observation, relationship concepts, verbal and figure classification, arithmetical number series, non-verbal series etc. The test will also include questions designed to test the candidates’ abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationship, arithmetical computation and other analytical functions.

Physical Efficiency Test (PET)

This test is only for qualified candidates in Documentation & PST. There will be a race in this test of qualifying nature.
Race –
Male – 4.8 KMs in 24 minutes.
Female – 2.4 KMs in 16 minutes.

Exam Pattern:- 

Mains written exam will be of 400 marks consisting of multiple choice questions.

Previous Year Papers of UP SI Exam :-

Books for UP SI Exam :-

UP Police Sub Inspector Recruitment 2015

UP police SI recruitment 2015
UP Police will Recruit 2064 Sub Inspector (SI) in 2015. Official Notification Regarding this Recruitment Notification Is Available Now by UP Police Recruitment & Promotion Board.
Detail of Vacancies :
Sub Inspector (Male) : – 1652 posts
Sub Inspector (Female) : – 412 posts

Age Limit for SI : 
Candidates Age should have Between 21 to 28 Years. 
For OBC- 21 to 31 Years
For SC/ST- 21 to 33 Years
Pay Scale :-
Sub Inspector (Male) :– Rs. 9300-34,800 Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-
Sub Inspector (Female) :– Rs. 9300-34,800 Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-
Qualification : Any Graduation Degree with 50% Marks from Any Recognized University
Physical Efficiency Test :-
Race– For Male 4.8 Km. in 28 Minutes. and for Female Candidates 2.4 Km. in 16 Minutes.
Application Fee : 
Rs. 400/- (Rupees For Hundred Only) The Application Fees Will Be Collected Through E-Challan & Debit Card, Credit card, Internet Banking Mode Only.
How to Apply : 
Interested eligible candidates should apply Online only Any other mode of submission of application would not be accepted For detailed advertisement & procedure log on to Online submission of application will start in the month of October, 2015.

Advertisement Details for Woman SI Bharti click here
Advertisement Details for Man SI Posts click here
For Apply Online Click Here

Profit and Loss shortcut tricks and concept

As we all know profit and loss question is the very import part of any competitive exam. Math is not hard to study but we need to score more in less time so we need shortcut and tricks to solve them. here we discussed  the shortcut tricks with proper explanation. This will not only make you understand it better but will also let you complete the questions in lesser time. 

Cost Price-The price at which an article is purchased is called its cost price (C.P.)
Selling Price-The price at which the article is sold is called its selling price (S.P.)

Loss = C.P. - S.P.
Gain% = {Gain*100}/{C.P.}
Loss% = {Loss*100}/{C.P.}

When there are two successive Profit of x % and y % then the resultant profit per cent is given by [x + y+ (x*y/100)]
If there is a Profit of x% and loss of y % in a transaction, then the resultant profit or loss% is given by [x – y - (x*y/100)]

If a cost price of m articles is equal to the selling Price of n articles, then Profit percentage

If cost price of 'a' articles is equal to the selling price of 'b' articles, then profit percentage
= (a – b)/b  × 100%
Example If cost price of 20 articles is equal to the selling price of 18 articles, then profit percentage.
Soln. Given that a = 20, b = 18
According to formula,
Profit % = (20 – 18)/18  × 100%
= 2/18  × 100% = 100/9  = 11 1/9 %

If a shopkeeper sells his goods at a% loss on cost price but uses b g instead of c g. then, his percentage profit or loss is
= [ (100 – a) c – 100 ]/b %
As sign positive or negative.
Example If a dealer sells goods at 6% loss on cost price but uses 14 g instead of 16 g. what is his percentage profit or loss?
Soln. Given that a = 6%, b = 14 g, C = 16g
According to formula,
Required answer = [ (100 – 6) 16 – 100 ] %
= ( 752 – 700 ) /7% = 52/7 % = 7 3/7 % gain
+ve sign shows that there is a gain.

A shopkeeper when sells on object for Rs. 900, then he faces loss which is equal to half of the profit gained if the object is sold for Rs. 1200. Find cost price.

C.P. = 900+100  or  1200 - 200

    =Rs 1000

BHEL jobs for Engineer Trainees in Anywhere in India

BHEL offers a challenging and rewarding career to young and dynamic Engineering graduates in the disciplines of Mechanical, Electrical, Electronics and Metallurgy. Candidates interested in joining BHEL as Engineer Trainees are required to take the Graduate Aptitude Test In Engineering 2016

Engineer Trainees jobs opportunity in BHEL Through GATE-2016

BHEL offers a challenging and rewarding career to young and dynamic Engineering graduates in the disciplines of Mechanical, Electrical, Electronics and Metallurgy. Candidates interested in joining BHEL as Engineer Trainees are required to take the Graduate Aptitude Test In Engineering 2016

Discipline/GATE Subject Code/No. of Vacancies

Mechanical/ME/ 115

Electrical/ EE/ 60

Electronics/ EC/ 15

Metallurgy/ MT/ 10

Pay Scale : Rs. 20,600 - Rs. 46,500)

Note : The number of vacancies indicated above is tentative. Actual requirement may vary based on further assessment. The requirement is for Manufacturing Units I Divisions and various Project Sites of BHEL spread across the country. For full details-log onto BHEL recruitment website:

Topic Wise detail analysis of FCI Exam

We are providing you the detailed analysis of the FCI paper held atdifferent Zone on different date But North region Paper schedule on 4thOctober 2015 (morning and Evening shift). It is very important for you all to go through this analysis, as it can help you for the coming north Zone FCI Exam.The detailed analysis and Topic Wise Breakup of the exam is given below.

Quantitative Aptitude (Topic-wise break-up of the paper)

Number of Questions
Data Interpretation
Number System
Percentage/ Profit, Loss & Discount
Time , Speed and Distance
Ratio/Allegation/ Average
Time and Work

English Language & Comprehension (Topic-wise break-up of the paper)

Number of Questions
Sentence Improvement
Sentence Completion
Wrongly Spelt Words
Reading Comprehension
One Word Substitution
Spotting Error
Para Jumble

General Knowledge (Topic-wise break-up of the paper)

Number of Questions
General Science
Current Affairs

General Intelligence (Topic-wise break-up of the paper)

Number of Questions
Word Arrangement
Odds  an  out
Number/Alphanumeric series
Logical/syllogism Reasoning
Venn  Diagram
Coding - decoding