Books for Ordinance Factory Chargeman exam

The Ordnance recently invites the applications for the various posts in different Department and field / trades. The candidates who are eligible and applied for the posts must have to give an examination to qualify and allot the vacant seat of position they applied for recruitment.

Syllabus of Ordinance Factory Chargeman exam :

The syllabus for the written examination will be in conformity with the educational standards and/or technical qualifications prescribed for the posts. The Questions will be of objective type with multiple answers. Questions will include a few questions on aptitude.

A. For Technical Posts

 Trade: Mechanical, Information Technology, Electrical, Civil, Automobile, Electronics

  • General Awareness (Conceptual Business Knowledge) & Technical Aptitude (pertaining to applied post)----30 Marks
  • Computer Applications ( O Level)  20 Marks
  • General Engineering including Engineering Drawing (Diploma Level)---30 Marks
  • Engineering in respective Trades(Diploma Level)----120 Marks

B. For NON-Technical Posts

  • General Awareness (Business Knowledge)                       20 Marks
  • Numerical Aptitude & Non-Verbal Reasoning                 50 Marks
  • Basic English                                                                          10 Marks
  • English OR Hindi (drafting)                                                40 Marks
  • Computer Awareness & Applications (O Level)              20 Marks
  • Conceptual & Application level in Industrial Management for Non-Technical (OTS) ORConceptual & Application level in Stores Management for Non-Technical (Stores)   10 Marks

Books for Ordinance Factory Chargeman exam :

Indian Ordnance Factory Recruitment 2014

Indian Ordnance Factory Has Announced Notice For 1572 Chargeman (Group, B) Posts In Various Trades.Eligible candidates can apply Online from 19-07-2014 to 09-08-2014. Other details like age limit, educational qualification, selection process and how to apply are given below…

Detail of Vacancies : Chargeman ( Non-Gazetted Group ‘B’) :- 1572 posts

Names of Posts: Chargeman ( Non-Gazetted Group ‘B’)
1. Mechanical: 875 Posts
2. Information Technology: 23 Posts
3. Electrical: 133 Posts
4. Chemical: 296 Posts
5. Civil: 39 Posts
6. Metallurgy: 46 Posts
7. Clothing Technology: 32 Posts
8. Leather Technology: 04 Posts
9. Non Technical (Stores): 41 Posts
10. Non Technical (OTS): 60 Posts
11. Automobile: 03 Posts
12. Electronics: 20 Posts

Age Limit : As On 09/08/2014

UR :- Up to 27 years

OBC :- 27 Years + 3 years

SC :- 27 Years + 5 years

ST :- 27 Years + 5 years

Educational Qualification :

The candidates applying for this post should possess a degree or diploma in relevant discipline, approved by AICTE. Also, the candidates should have acquired a B.Sc. degree with general chemistry. The candidates should have an "A" level competency certificate course. The candidates should possess a graduate degree in Engineering/ Technical/ Humanities/ Science/ Commerce or Law as per the posts.

Application Fee : Rs.100/-. Through bank Remittance only in favour of, PRINCIPAL DIRECTOR, RECRUITMENT FUND OFRB, AMBAJHARI- NAGPUR. However no fee will be charged for SC/ST, Women and Physically Handicapped (PH) candidates. In addition, candidates have to pay Rs.50/-. for Off-line Bank Transaction Charges to SBI.

Selection Procedure : Selection will be made strictly on the merit of WRITTEN EXAMINATION to be notified in Centres of Examination will be Ambernath (near Kalyan, Mumbai), Aruvankadu (Near Ooty), Badmal (Odisha), Chandigarh, Chennai, Dehradun, Jabalpur, Kanpur, Kolkata, Medak (Near Hyderabad), Muradnagar (Near Delhi), Nagpur, Pune, Trichy. Principal Director, NADP reserves the right to change and allot any venue to a particular candidate.

There will be no Interview/Personality Tests. A provisional merit list of candidates will be published. Selected candidates will be asked to come to NADP/Respective factories with their original documents for verification. Mention of the name in this list does not entitle the candidate to claim employment.

How To Apply : Interested Candidate May Apply Online Through No Others Mean & Mode Of Accepting Application Online Application Will Accepted From 19/07/2014 To 09/08/2014

Important Dates:

On-line Registration of Applications (Opening Date)- 19.07.2014

Last Date for Registration (Closing Date)- 09.08.2014

Download Advertisement Link –
Apply Online –

Admit card of dmrc 2014

Dear applicants! If you are searching for DMRC Admit card 2014 for JE and System Analyst & Maintainer vacancies then you are at right place. Here on this page we are providing you the details about downloading hall ticket for DMRC 2014.
Post Code Name of the Post Written Exam Admit Card Availability Tentative Schedule of Result Declaration
01 Station Controller/ Train Operator (SC/TO) 27th July, 2014 11th July, 2014 07th September, 2014
02 Customer Relations Assistant (CRA) To be announced To be announced To be announced
03 Jr.Engineer/ Electrical 3 August 19 July 16 September
04 Jr.Engineer/ Electronics To be announced To be announced To be announced
05 Jr.Engineer/ Mechanical To be announced To be announced To be announced
06 Jr.Engineer/ Civil To be announced To be announced To be announced
07 (A) Maintainer (Electrician) 13th July, 2014 28th June, 2014 24th August, 2014
07 (B) Maintainer (Fitter) 20th July, 2014 05th July, 2014 24th August, 2014
  1. Admit card shall be available only on our website (15 days prior to the date of Examination). Candidates are requested to download their admit card in color format only from our website only, No separate admit card shall be dispatched through post.
  2. Candidates are requested to visit this website regularly for latest updates.
  3. Discrepancies, if any regarding the Admit Card should be reported by email on

Maths - short cut tricks for square

In this post you learn some shortcut method related to square of I will explain Some Tricks that improve your speed during calculation.

Trick 1: 2 Digit Number which ends in 5

Step 1: Multiply ten’s digit with its next number.
Step 2: Find square of unit’s digit. i.e.: Square of 5.
Step 3: Write answers of step 1 and step 2 to together or side by side.

Let’s take examples.  Find square of 45

Step 1:  =>    4 × ( 4 + 1 ) = 4 × 5 = 20
Step 2: = >   25  ( 
square of unit’s digit)
Step 3:  => (step 1) ( step 2)      Answer = 2025

Trick 2 : if you know square of the previous number.

Step 1: Find square of the previous number which is known.
Step 2: Multiply the number being squared by 2 and subtract 1.
Step 3: Add Step 1 and Step 2

Find square of 31.

Step 1 = > 302 = 900
Step 2 = >  (31 × 2) – 1 = 62 – 1 = 61
Step 3 = >  900 + 61 = 961

Trick 3 : Any two digit number square

Let’s say the number is two digit number. i.e. AB.
So B is units digit and A is tens digit.

Step 1: Find Square of B
Step 2: Find 2×A×B
Step 3: Find Square of A
Step 4 :Add carry from brackets right to left

Let’s take an example.
We want to find square of 37.
Step 1: Find square of 7.  Square of 7 = 49. So write 9 in the answer and 4 as carry to the second step.   
Step 2: Find 2×(3×7)
        2 × (3 × 7) = 42.
        42 + 4(Carry) = 46.      
Step 3: Find square of 3
        Square of 3 = 9
        9 + 4(Carry) = 13.
        Write 13 in the answer.
        Square Shortcut Method 
        So the answer is 1369.
Basically in math form you can say

(n1n2)^2 = (n1)^2(2xn1xn2)(n2)^2

(42)^2 = (4)^2(2x4x2)(2)^2 = (16)(16)(4)
= > add carry from brackets right to left
 = (17)(6)(4) = 1764

Trick  4 : Square for number  From 31 to 50: 

Find the square of 38.

Step 1 :  12 =50-38
Step 2 : Last 2 Digit :  Square of  12 = 144 =44 (1 Carry)
Step 3 : 
First 2 Digit:  25-12+1 =14
Final answer =1444 (First 2 Digit Last 2 Digit)

Trick  5 : Square for number  From 51 to 80: 

Find the Square of 62

 Step 1 :  50+12 ( Yes, every time You have to think like this 50 + )
{If the number is 72 We will write 50+22}
Step 2 : Last 2 Digit : Square of 12 =144 = 44 ( 1 will be carry )
Step 3 : First 2 Digit : 25+12+1 =38
25 is constant number for every number 51-80 You have to add this!!
So our final result is 3844 (See First 2 Digit and Last 2 Digit above)
622 = 3844

Trick  6 : Square for number  From 81 to 100: 

Find the square of 88

 Step 1 : 88=100 -12 ( Yes 100-12 Only , not 50+38 or 80+8 )
{If the number is 92 then we have to think like 100-8}
 Step 2 : Last 2 Digit : 122 = 144 = 44 (1 carry )
 Step 3 : First 2 Digit : 88 - 12 + 1 =77

So our final Answer is 7744 (First 2 Digit Last 2 Digit) 

You can also share your trick on comment.

Deenbandhu Chhotu Ram University of Science and Technology (DCRUST) Haryana

Applications on the prescribed form are invited for the following Faculty posts -

Professor : 11 posts in various subjects, 

Pay Band : Rs. 37400-67000 AGP 10000/-

Associate Professor : 21 posts, 

Pay Band : Rs.37400-67000  AGP 9000/-

Assistant Professor : 15 posts, 

Pay Band : Rs. 15600-39100 + AGP 6000/-

Application Fee : Demand Draft of Rs. 200/- (Rs. 50 for SC/ST, Rs.25/- for SC/ST Women and Rs. 100/- for other Women) in favour of Registrar, Deenbandhu Chhotu Ram University of Science & Technology, Murthal (Sonepat) payable at SBI, Sonepat.

How to Apply :  The application complete in all respects must reach the office of Assistant Registrar (Faculty), Deenbandhu Chhotu Ram University of Science & Technology, Murthal (Sonepat) - 131039 latest by 18/07/2014. 


Government job
Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited, Visakhapatnam Steel Plant (Vizag Steel), is a prestigious "Mini Ratna" PSU under the Ministry of Steel. Vizag Steel invites qualified, experienced and competent  professionals for the following posts in Mines Department 

Junior Trainee :  248 posts (UR-124, OBC-69, SC-45, ST-10) (PWD-11)  in Mechanical / Electrical/ Instrumentation branch,

Qualification :  SSC with ITI / Diploma in Engineering in the following Trades/ Disciplines (60% marks in ITI / Diploma in Engineering for Gen/OBC candidates, 50% marks for SC/ST/PWD candidates),

Age : 18-27 years,  

Stipend and Pay Scale :  Candidates will be paid a monthly stipend of Rs.10700/- (consolidated)  during the first year and a monthly stipend of  Rs.12200/- during the remaining period of training.  On satisfactory completion of training, candidates will be considered for appointment on probation to a regular post, in the pay scale of  Rs. 9160 -  3% - 13150/- 

Application Fee :  Rs. 300/- for General and OBC candidates  to be deposited in “RINL Recruitment Account No.  30589461220” at any of the core banking branches of State Bank of  India in the prescribed Challan.

How to Apply :  Apply Online at Vizag Steel website from 27/06/2014 to 07/07/2014 only.

SBI clerk Exam Syllabus , Book and Previous year paper

SBI clerk recruitment exam 2014
State Bank of India (SBI) invites applications for the posts of Assistants in Clerical Cadre. Eligible candidates can apply through online on or before 14-06-2014. 

The recruitment exam will be held online tentatively in July / August 2014 (Tentative). For the first time SBI is going to conduct the online exam for clerks. The online exam pattern will be almost same as IBPS Clerks online exam. 

Further details like eligibility criteria, qualifications, selection procedure and how to apply are mentioned below.


PAYMENT OF FEES - ONLINE : 26.05.2014 to 14.06.2014
PAYMENT OF FEES - OFFLINE : 28.05.2014 to 17.06.2014

AGE: (As on 01.05.2014)

Minimum Age : 20 years ; Maximum Age : 28 years (as on 01.05.2014). Candidates born
between 02.05.1986 and 01.05.1994 (both days inclusive) are only eligible to apply.


A Degree (Graduation level) from a recognized university, or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central/State Government. Those who are in the final year of  Graduation/Semester may also apply provisionally subject to the condition that, if called for interview, they will have to produce proof of having passed the Graduation Examination on or before 31.08.2014.


  1. SC/ST/PWD/XS Rs. 100/- (Intimation Charges only)
  2. General and OBC Rs. 450/- (App. Fee including intimation charges)

The selection procedure for SBI Clerk Exam is by
  1. Written Exam
  2. Interview

Pattern for SBI Clerk exam:-

  1. General English
  2. Reasoning
  3. Numerical Ability
  4. General Awareness
  5. Computer / Marketing Knowledge.
All the questions in the written exam are of objective type.There is negative marking for the wrong answer. It will be 1/4 th .

In order to crack the written exam, one should have strong preparation towards all the aspects of written exam.

Previous year paper of SBI clerk :

SBI Bank Clerk 2007
SBI Clerk 2008 Solved Paper
Sbi Clerk(Marketting Aptitude and Computer Knowledge)-2009

Book for SBI clerk Exam :

SBI PO Previous Year Question Paper

State Bank of India is back with its recruitment process in 2014. It begins its major recruitment for the post of  Probationary Officer. In my last post  I explain about syllabus and Books for SBI PO preparation . In this post I try to add resources that help you in preparation

Paper 1  - Reasoning
Paper 2 - GK
Paper 3 -  Complete Paper
Paper 4 - English 

I try to add more papers to this Post . You can also share any link with me that help in SBI PO preparation

Syllabus , Book and Study Plan for SBI PO exam

SBI PO 2014 notification is announced and online examination will be held in the month of June. So, you have two months to prepare for the exam.  two months seems like a little time so you prepare with suitable study plan.For any examination, practice has to be focused and in line with the requirements. A professional guidance in understanding the areas which require practice will go a long way in making one better equipped to crack the bank examination. Practice makes a man perfect it is said and this is definitely not without reason. More the time spent in practicing, better is the efficiency in the examination. Higher the efforts prior to the examination, better is the efficiency during the examination.

SBI PO exam Syllabus :

1. Objective Tests of 200 marks ---- 2 hrs.
2. Descriptive Test of 50 marks ----- 1 hr.

The Objective Test will be in online mode, immediately after you have to give Descriptive Test. Candidates will have to answer Descriptive Test on paper/Pen mode.

There are four section in first paper 

1. Reasoning (High Level):  It consist following sub topics 
  • Syllogism: 5 Qs
  • Data Sufficiency: 5 Qs
  • Miscellaneous – 5 Qs
  • Inequality or Decision Making: 5 Qs
  • Seating Arrangement/ Puzzle Test: 15 Qs
  • Input Output: 5 Qs
  • Logical Reasoning10 Qs.
Tips :

  • Be mentally alert in reading the question
  • Think logically for answers
  • Practice similar questions from previous model papers/ previous year exam papers.

2. Data Analysis & Interpretation:

To score good marks in this section, you have to be quick in solving mathematical calculations. You should have good command on topics like Ratio, Percentage, and Average as in D.I. section mostly questions come on the basis of these topics.

3. English Language

SBI PO English paper is tough, if we compare with other competitive exams.Focus on English grammar & its deep concepts like verbs, adverbs, adjectives, noun, pronoun etc. And a good command on vocabulary would help you overcome the questions asked in the paper.

4. General Awareness/Marketing/Computer KnowledgeThis is the easiest section in SBI PO Exam.

For GK, please read the newspaper daily and make a notebook for that and note down the important news which is relevant for exam. 

5. Descriptive: Descriptive paper contains, Letter Writing, Precise Writing & Questions based on comprehension passage.

This section is really concern for many candidates who do not have good writing skills and they fear while attempting this section. Many candidates don’t know what to write and how to give answers of the questions in descriptive paper.

You have to answer 200 questions with accuracy in 2 hours, which required good speed. But it is not possible to answer all the 200 questions in given stipulated time.

Strategy and Study Plan for SBI PO: 

1. For improving your speed just buy Online Mock Test Series for SBI PO exam because this time SBI is going to conduct online written exam.

2. You can also buy books of previous year question papers, Model Practice sets so that you will get an idea about the pattern and types of questions which was asked in previous years SBI PO exam.

3. Now, this is the easiest part of your preparation, as everyone knows that the only way to improve your speed is by PRACTICE.

Best Book for SBI PO :


1. Every year March 20 is celebrated as what day ?
(A) World Sparrow Day
(B) International Women's Day
(C) World Cuckoo Day
(D) International Child Day
(E) International Mother's Day
Ans : (A)
2. Invisible Export means export of–
(A) Services
(B) Prohibited goods
(C) Restricted goods
(D) Goods as per OGL list
(E) Other than those given as options
Ans : (A)
3. One of the famous Indian Sportsperson released his/her autobiography–'Playing to Win' in November 2012. Name the sports-person correctly–
(A) Saina Nehwal
(B) Mary Kom
(C) Yuvraj Singh
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) Sushil Kumar
Ans : (A)
4. The NRIs while investing in the equity of a company cannot buy more than prescribed percentage of the paid up capital of that company .What is the prescribed percentage ?
(A) 2% (B) 3% (C) 4% (D) 5% (E) 6%
Ans : (D)
5. Government as part of the recapitalisation plan, infused capital in State Bank of India recently. Indicate the approximate capital infusion–
(A) Rs. 500 cr. (B) Rs. 1000 cr. (C) Rs. 1,500 cr.
(D) Rs. 2,000 cr. (E) Rs. 3,000 cr.
Ans : (E)
6. Prof. Muhammad Yunus, the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize 2006 is the exponent of which of the following concepts in the field of banking ?
(A) Core Banking (B) Micro Credit (C) Retail Banking
(D) Real Time Gross Settlement (E) Internet Banking
Ans : (B)
7. Banks in India are required to maintain a portion of their demand and time liabilities with the Reserve Bank of India. This portion is called–
(A) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (B) Cash Reserve Ratio (C) Bank Deposit
(D) Reverse Repo (E) Government Securities
Ans : (B)
8. The European Union has adopted which of the following as a common currency ?
(A) Dollar (B) Dinar (C) Yen
(D) Euro (E) Peso
Ans : (D)
9. Who is the Captain of Australian Cricket Team, which currently (March 2013) visited India ?
(A) Michael Clarke (B) Shane Watson (C) Shane Warne
(D) Michael Hussey (E) Ricky Ponting
Ans : (A)
10. Who is the author of the book 'Women of Vision' ?
(A) Ravinder Singh (B) Preeti Shenoy (C) Amish Tripathi
(D) Durjoy Dutta (E) Alam Srinivas
Ans : (E)
11. Which of the following term is associated with the game of Cricket ?
(A) Bouncer (B) Love (C) Goal
(D) Mid Court (E) Collision
Ans : (A)
12. The Holidays for the Banks are declared as per–
(A) Reserve Bank Act (B) Banking Regulation Act (C) Negotiable Instruments Act
(D) Securities and Exchange Board of India Act (E) Companies Act
Ans : (C)
13. In banking business, when the borrowers avail a Term Loan, initially they are given a repayment holiday and this is referred as–
(A) Subsidy (B) Interest Water (C) Re-phasing
(D) Interest concession (E) Moratorium
Ans : (E)
l4. One of IT Company from India has become the first Indian Company to trade on NYSE Euronext London and Paris markets from February 2013 onwards. Which is this company ?
(A) Wipro Infotech Ltd.
(B) L&T Infotech
(C) HCL Technologies LTD.
(D) Infosys Technologies Limited
(E) Polaris Financial Technology Ltd.
Ans : (D)
l5. Banking Ombudsman is appointed by–
(A) Government of India (B) State Governments (C) RBI
(D) ECGC (E) Exim Bank
Ans : (C)
l6. BSE (Bombay Stock Exchange), the oldest stock exchange in Asia has joined hands with one more International index in February 2013. This association has resulted in change of name of BSE index. What is the change of name effected ?
(A) Dow Jones BSE Index (B) NASDAQ BSE Index (C) S&P BSE Index
(D) Euronext BSE Index (E) Other than those given as options
Ans : (C)
17. Interest on Savings deposit now-a-days is–
(A) Fixed by RBI (B) Fixed by the respective Banks (C) Fixed by the Depositors
(D) Fixed as per the contract between Bank and the Consumer Court (E) Not pay by the Bank
Ans : (B)
18. The customers' by opening and investing in the Tax Saver Deposit Account Scheme in a bank would get benefit under–
(A) Sales Tax (B) Customs Duty (C) Excise Duty
(D) Professional Tax (E) Income Tax
Ans : (E)
19. Pre-shipment finance is provided by the banks only to–
(A) Credit Card Holders (B) Students aspiring for further studies (C) Brokers in equity market
(D) Village Artisans (E) Exporters
Ans : (E)
20. A non-performing asset is–
(A) Money at call and short notice (B) An asset that ceases to generate income
(C) Cash balance in till (D) Cash balance with RBI
(E) Balance with other banks
Ans : (B)
21. Interest below which a bank is not expected to lend to customers is known as–
(A) Deposit Rate (B) Base Rate (C) Prime Lending Rate
(D) Bank Rate (E) Discount Rate
Ans : (B)
22. Government usually classifies its expenditure in term of planned and non-planned expenditure. Identify, which is the correct definition of Planned expenditure ?
(A) It represents the expenditure of all the State Governments
(B) It represents the total expenditure of the Central Government
(C) It is the expenditure which is spent through centrally sponsored programmes and flagship schemes of Government
(D) It represents the expenditure incurred on Defence
(E) Other than those given as options
Ans : (E)
23. Which of the following organization is made specifically responsible for empowering Micro, Small and Medium enterprises in India ?
Ans : (C)
24. The Union Budget for 2013-14 proposed by the Finance Minister on February 28, 2013 announced introduction of new variety of bonds by the Government. What is the name of these bonds ?
(A) Deep discount bonds (B) Zero Coupon bonds (C) Bullet Bonds
(D) Inflation Indexed Bonds (E) Inflation Variable Bonds
Ans : (D)
25. RBI has released its guidelines for entry of new banks in the private sector in the month of February 2013. One of the norms is at least a prescribed percentage of branches of new bank should be set in unbanked rural centres with a population of upto 9,999 people. What is the percentage of such branches prescribed in the norms?
(A) 10% (B) 15% (C) 18%
(D) 25% (E) Other than those given as options
Ans : (D)
26. A joystick is primarily used to/for–
(A) Control sound on the screen (B) Computer gaming (C) Enter text
(D) Draw pictures (E) Print text
Ans : (B)
27. The CPU comprises of Control, Memory and …………….. units.
(A) Microprocessor (B) Arithmetic/Logic (C) Output
(D) ROM (E) Input
Ans : (B)
28. Which of the following uses a handheld operating system ?
(A) A super computer (B) A personal computer (C) A laptop
(D) A mainframe (E) A PDA
Ans : (E)
29. To display the contents of a folder in Windows Explorer you should–
(A) click on it (B) collapse it (C) name it
(D) give it a password (E) rename it
Ans : (A)
30. 'C' in CPU denotes–
(A) Central (B) Common (C) Convenient
(D) Computer (E) Circuitry
Ans : (A)
31. …………….. is the most important/powerful computer in a typical network.
(A) Desktop (B) Network Client (C) Network server
(D) Network station (E) Network switch
Ans : (C)
32. Which is not a storage device ?
(A) A CD (B) A DVD (C) A Floppy disk
(D) A Printer (E) A Hard disk
Ans : (D)
33. Which bf the following refers to the rectangular area for displaying information and running programs ?
(A) Desktop (B) Dialog box (C) Menu
(D) Window (E) Icon
Ans : (B)
34. …………….. devices convert human-understandable data and programs into a form that the computer can process.
(A) Printing (B) Output (C) Solid state
(D) Monitor (E) Input
Ans : (E)
35. The software that is used to create text-based documents are referred to as–
(A) DBMS (B) suites (C) spreadsheets
(D) presentation software (E) word Processors
Ans: (E)
36. …………….. is a Windows utility program that locates and eliminates unnecessary fragments and rearranges files and unused-disk space to optimize operations.
(A) Backup (B) Disk Cleanup (C) Disk Defragmenter
(D) Restore (E) Disk Restorer
Ans: (C)
37. Which of the following refers to too much electricity and may cause a voltage surge?
(A) Anomaly (B) Shock (C) Spike
(D) Virus (E) Splash
Ans: (C)
38. A (n) …………….. appearing on a web page opens another document when clicked.
(A) anchor (B) URL (C) hyperlink
(D) reference (E) heading
Ans: (C)
39. A successful marketing Person requires one of the following qualities–
(A) Empathy (B) Sympathy (C) Insistence
(D) Aggressiveness (E) Pride
Ans: (B)
40. Market segmentation can be resorted to by dividing the target group as per–
(A) Income levels of customers (B) Age of the employees (C) Needs of the sales persons (D) Marketing skills of the employees (E) Size of the Organisation
Ans: (A)
41. Innovation in marketing is same as–
(A) Abbreviation (B) Communication (C) Creativity
(D) Aspiration (E) Research work
Ans: (E)
42. Effective Selling Skills depends on–
(A) Number of languages known to the DSA (B) Data on marketing staff (C) Information regarding IT market
(D) Knowledge of related market (E) Ability to talk fast
Ans: (D)
43. A Direct Selling Agent (DSA) is required to be adept in–
(A) Surrogate marketing (B) Training Skills (C) Communication skills (D) Market Research (E) OTC Marketing
Ans: (C)
44. Leads can be best sourced from–
(A) Foreign customers (B) Yellow pages (C) Dictionary
(D) List of vendors (E) Local supply chains
Ans: (B)
45. Value added services means–
(A) Low cost products (B) High cost products (C) At par services
(D) Additional services for the same cost (E) Giving Discounts
Ans: (D)
46. Post-sales activities includes–
(A) Sales presentation (B) Customer Feedback (C) Customer indentification
(D) Customer apathy (E) Product design
Ans: (B)
47. The target market for Debit Cards is–
(A) All existing account-holders (B) All agriculturists (C) All DSAs
(D) All vendors (E) All outsourced agents
Ans: (A)
48. The Competitive position of a company can be improved by–
(A) increasing the selling price (B) reducing the margin (C) ignoring competitors
(D) increasing the cost price (E) understanding and fulfilling customers’ needs
Ans: (E)
49. A good Brand can be built up by way of–
(A) Customer grievances (B) Break-down of IT support (C) Old age
(D) Large number of products (E) Consistent offering of good services
Ans: (E)
50. The ‘USP’ of a product denotes–
(A) Usefulness of the product
(B) Drawback of a product
(C) Main functions
(D) Number of allied products available
(E) High selling features of a product