Database quiz for IT officer exam

As we all know,DBMS is very important subject for SO exam. For that reading book in detail is not possible,also its boring too. We are providing important question as a quiz

00:00:00
1. In SQL, the CREATE TABLESPACE is used :
To create a place in the database for storage of scheme objects
To create a database trigger
To add/rename data files, to change storage
All of the above
None of the above

2. 'AS' clause is used in SQL for
Selection operation
Rename operation
Join operation
Projection operation
none of the above

3. In SQL, the CREATE VIEW command is used :
To re-compile view
To define a view of one or more tables or views
To re-compile a table
To create a trigger
None of the above

4. In SQL, which command is used to remove a stored function from the database ?
REMOVE FUNCTION
DELETE FUNCTION
DROP FUNCTION
ERASE FUNCTION
None of these

5. Which command is used to remove an index from the database in SQL?
DELETE INDEX
DROP INDEX
REMOVE INDEX
ROLLBACK INDEX
None of the above

6. In SQL, GRANT command is used to
Allow user to access database
Allow user to create database
Grant system privileges, roles and object privileges to uses and roles
Choose auditing for specific SQL commands
None of the above

7. In SQL, which command(s) is (are) used to remove rows from a table :
DELETE
REMOVE
TRUNCATE
Both (a) and (c)
None of the above

8. In SQL, which statement is used to select employee number (EMP_NO) and Department (DEPT) from (EMPLE) table whose salary (SALARY) is 8000?
SELECT EMPNO, DEPT FROM EMPL=8000
SELECT EMPNO, DEPT FROM EMPL WHERE SALARY=8000
SELECT EMPNO, DEPT, SALARY=8000 FROM EMPL
SELECT EMPNO, DEPT, FROM TABLE EMPL WHEN SALARY-800
None of these

9. Multivalued dependencies should ________ be eliminated.
always
commonly
seldom
never
None of these

10. A subquery in an SQL SELECT statement is enclosed in:
braces -- {...}
CAPITAL LETTERS
parenthesis -- (...)
brackets -- [...]
None of these


                                       

Decide your goal ( government job preparation first step )

Many of you must have gone through or are going through this phase in life, i.e When things do not seem to be going very well, and you have been consistently holding the right vision and holding the right thoughts, even if we cannot explain "HOW" it is going to happen, we can continue to still know that we know that we know. We feel that we are on the right track, but still unsuccessful. We know that somehow all of the effort and belief and consistency that we put into our dream purpose will pay off and the dream will be manifested in a tangible way.

There comes a time when you pass the line where you no longer turn back and give up, despite many failures . We become a man or women on mission. Quitting is no longer an option. you will not settle for anything less and the highest and the best that has your name on it.So how to then become successful, get over our consistent failures?


1. Firstly identify a major goal and then ask" why am I not there already?" List everything you can think of that might be acting as a roadblock.
2. Look into yourself and face the possibility that it is your own fears and doubts that are bigger than your biggest roadblocks to success.
3. Identify the constraints or limiting factor, in yourself or the situation, that sets the speed at which you achieve your goal.
4. Develop several definitions of your major problem or obstacle. Ask " what else is the problem".
5. Define your best solution as a goal, set a deadline make a plan of action, and then get busy on your plan. Work on it every day until the problem is solved or the obstacle is removes.
6. Make a list of everything that you can think of that you will have to do to achieve your goal. Leave nothing out.
7. Organize your priority; what is the most important task or activity? The second most important ? And so on.
8. Organize your list by sequence; what must be done before something else can be done?
9. revisit and revise your plan regularly, especially when you get new information or things that are not going as you had expected. Be prepared to change if you need to.

SBI and IBPS Specialist Officer Questions and Answers: IT Quiz

1. ‘TELNET’ is
(1) running complex programs by logging on to supercomputers belonging to other countries
(2) a telephone call made by the help of Internet
(3) a software to perfect viral attack
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
2. Which one of the following computer language is not the procedure-oriented language?
(1) C-language
(2) FORTRAN
(3) COBOL
(4) Simula
(5) None of these
3. Which one of the following internet protocol version is the most deployed internet layer protocol?
(1) IPv2
(2) IPv4
(3) IPv6
(4) IPv8
(5) None of these
4. Which one of the following malware is used in the Internet Relay chart channel or other chart system to coordinate the activity of many infected computer?
(1) Keyloggers
(2) Adwares
(3) Dialers
(4) Botnets
(5) None of these
5. Which one of the following rebooting commonly occurs when the system of computer is crashed?
(1) Soft rebooting
(2) Cold rebooting
(3) Hard rebooting
(4) Random rebooting
(5) None of the above
6. Which one of the following computers is the world’s first commercial computer?
(1) Ferranti Mar-I
(2) Mark-I Star
(3) UNIVAC-I
(4) IBM-704
(5) None of these
7. The advantage of a LAN is
(1) sharing peripherals
(2) backing up your data
(3) saving all your data
(4) accessing the web
(5) automatic printing of data
8. A tree like structure of records in a database
(1) hierarchical database structure
(2) relational database structure
(3) multidimensional database structure
(4) sequential database access
(5) None of the above
9. The memory address of the first element of an array is called
(1) floor address
(2) foundation address
(3) first address
(4) base address
(5) None of these
10. The PHP Syntax is most similar to
(1) PERL and C
(2) Java script
(3) VB script
(4) Visual Basic
(5) None of these




Answers:
1. 1
2. 2
3. 2
4. 4
5. 4
6. 3
7. 1
8. 1
9. 4
10. 1

Lucknow Metro Recruitment Notification (LMRC)

Lucknow Metro Rail Project, a special purpose vehicle (SPV), Lucknow Metro Rail Corporation (LMRC) has been incorporated on 25.11.2013 under Companies Act, 1956. The certificate of commencement of business was issued on 24.12.2013. This Company will jointly be owned by GoI and GoUP. Lucknow Metro Rail Corporation Limited (LMRC) Lucknow invites Online Applications in prescribed format from eligible candidates for recruitment ofAssistant Manager, Station Controller cum Train Operator, Customer Relations Assistants, Junior Engineer, Office Assistant, Accountant Assistant and Maintainer for Direct Recruitment Basis.


Lucknow Metro Rail Corporation Vacancy Details:

Total No. of Posts: 254
Name of the Post:
1. Assistant Manager/ Accounts: 01 post
2. Station Controller cum Train Operator (SCTO): 97 posts
3. Customer Relations Assistant (CRA): 26 posts
4. Jr Engineer/ (Electrical): 38 posts
5. Jr Engineer/ (S&T): 16 posts
6. Jr Engineer/ (Civil): 16 posts
7. Office Assistant (HR): 02 posts
8. Account Assistant: 03 posts
9. Maintainer (Electrical): 29 posts
10. Maintainer (S&T): 12 posts
11. Maintainer (Civil): 14 posts

Age Limit: Candidates age should be between 21 to 28 years for Post No.1, 18 to 25 years for Post No.9, 10 & 11 as on 01-12-2015. 05 years of age relaxation will be admissible for SC/ ST/ OBC candidates. Refer the notification for complete details.

Educational Qualification:
Candidates should possess 03 years Engineering Diploma in Electrical/ Electronics/ Electronics & Telecommunication or equivalent for Post No.2, 03/ 04 years Graduation course in any discipline for Post No.3, 03 years Diploma in Electrical Engineering or equivalent for Post No.4, 03 years Engineering Diploma in Electronics/ Electronics & Communication or equivalent for Post No.5, 03 years Diploma in Civil Engineering for Post No.6, ITI (NCVT/ SCVT) in Electrician trade for Post No.9.

Selection Process: Candidates will be selected based on Written Test, Medical Exam, Psycho Aptitude Test.

Application Fee: Candidates should have to pay Rs. 400/- UR/ OBC (including Ex-servicemen) candidates, Rs. 150/- for SC/ ST candidates fee can be pay through Online mode/ Offline mode.

On Line Payment: Application/ Processing Fee can be paid through ATM cum Debit Card of any bank/ Credit Card of any bank/ Net banking through any bank to make the online payment Only through State Bank of India (SBI ) Payment Gateway.

Off Line Payment: Download the preprinted Challan form for depositing application/ processing fee through State Bank of India (SBI) Payment Gateway of LMRCL website (www.lmrcl.com) and make the cash payment in any State Bank of India (SBI) branches only during bank working hours

How to Apply:
Eligible candidates can apply online through the website “www.lmrcl.com” from 30-12-2015 to 01-02-2016 till 11:59 PM.

Instructions to Apply Online:
1. Log on through the website “www.lmrcl.com”.
2. Click on the “Recruitment”.
3. Click on “Click here for Apply Online”.
4. Read the instructions care fully & Click on “Apply Now”.
5. Login & Fill all the details and submit the form.
6. Take a print out copy of filled online application for future use.

Important Dates:Dates for Payment of Application Fee From 30-12-2015 to 01-02-2016
Starting Date for Online Registration 30-12-2015
Last Date for Online Registration 01-02-2016 till 11:59 PM
Dates for Downloading Admit Cards 15-02-2016

Railway BOARD RRB Notification 2016 - 18252 Vacancy Application

Government of India, Ministry of Railways and Railway Recruitment of Boards has released official notification. there is a huge numbers of vacancies as per notification for various posts. Online applications are invited for various posts. Application complete in all respects should be submitted only online to concerned Railway Recruitment Board as mentioned in notification, till closing date.

Name of the Position:
1. Commercial Apprentice: 703 Posts
2. Traffic Apprentice: 1645 Posts
3. Enquiry-cum-Reservation Clerk: 127 Posts
4. Good Guard: 7591 Posts
5. Assistant Station Master: 5942 Posts
6. Traffic Assistant: 166 Posts


EXAMINATION FEE:
No examination fee for candidates belonging to SC/ST/Ex-Servicemen / Women / Minorities / Transgenders / Persons with Disabilities and Economically backward classes (refer to General Instructions Para 4). For UR/OBC male candidates not coming within the purview of exempted categories, as above, examination fee is 100/-(Rupees One Hundred Only).

HOW TO APPLY:
Candidates are required to apply through ONLINE mode to ANY ONE RRB ONLY, on the website of concerned Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) as indicated in Para 16. Detailed instructions for filling up ONLINE applications are available on the website of RRB(s). Brief Instructions to fill up of the same are given in Para Nos. 5 and 5 (A) of this notification. Application to more than one RRB will lead to rejection of all the applications.

LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF APPLICATIONS: The ONLINE application, complete in all respects, can be submitted to RRB concerned up to 25.01.2016 till 23.59 Hrs. No physical copy of application / document is required to be sent to RRBs.

SAME DAY EXAMINATION: Common CBT (Examination) is scheduled to be held on the same day(s) by all participating RRBs tentatively during MARCH — MAY, 2016.

NEGATIVE MARKING: There shall be penalty (negative marking) in CBT /Examination and marks shall be deducted for each wrong answer @ 1/3 of the marks allotted for each question.


Apply Online : 26-12-2015
Last Date : 25-01-2016

Preparing for IBPS IT Specialist Officer Exam 2016

In this post I am going to explain how to prepare for IT Specialist Officer Exam. Every one have their own way of study. I am going to discuss my strategies and plan TO CRACK IBPS SPECIALIST OFFICER EXAM

Here are my few Tips and Techniques to Crack the IBPS Exam:-

Time Management 

Time management is very very essential in this exam as we have very limited amount of time and we have to attempt too many questions. Solving more than a question per minute is really a challenging task specially in the reasoning section and the aptitude section.

1. Attempt the Professional Knowledge Section First - Professional knowledge questions asked are basically from theory. You don’t have to do any calculations in that section. So, one thing is clear if you don’t know the answer then move to the next question. If you know the answer, tick it fast. Try to solve 3 questions in a minute.

2. English Second- Attempt Test of English section. This section is scoring for all those who have a good command on English. But in order to get section cut off marks, attempt at least 35-40 questions in not more than 30 minutes. If you do maximum questions right, you will get more than section cut off marks.

3. Attempt Quantitative Aptitude  you must attempt Quantitative Aptitude after English. This section is one of the deciding section for many candidates so if you score good marks in aptitude then surely you will make it to the interview list.

4. Attempt Test of Reasoning - Reasoning is the section which is going to take most of your time. Secondly you can not take the chance to do it fast. So you need to be careful while attempting reasoning section. 

Rest is up to you. If you want to crack IBPS Specialist Paper and want to score good marks, then attempt the way I just explained above.


Quick Tips:

  • Start preparing early so that you’re able to identify your strong and weak areas. You can then plan your preparation accordingly.
  • Learn time management by solving sample or mock tests and tracking your progress.
  • Beware of the negative marking so that you don’t attempt all questions (or the questions you can’t solve). Avoid any guess work.
  • Don’t get stuck if you’re unable to solve a question. While overspending time on solving a question. Remember that you’re running out of time.
  • Keep an eye on your watch so that you could wisely spend the time you’re left with.
  • Always try to implement the Elimination Rule while answering a multiple type choice question.
  • Remember that there’s a sectional cut-off and you have to clear it in order to get through the test and receive interview calls.

Exam Material - Books/Notes for IBPS Specialist Officers
CWE IT Officers Scale - 1 & 2 (With CD) : Common Written Examination 2014 (English) 4th Edition
IBPS - CWE Specialist Officer 101 Speed Tests - Agriculture Officer / Marketing Officer / IT Officer (English) 1st Edition
CWE Specialist Officers Cadre IT Officer Scale 1 & 2 Recruitment Exam (English) 1st Edition
Comprehensive Guide to IBPS - CWE : Specialist IT Officer - Scale 1 & 2 (English) 1st Edition Bank Specialist Agricultural Field Officer Common Written Exam IBPS CWE SPL - 4 Specialist Officers / Marketing Officer Online Exam Professional Knowledge Practice Work Book : Including Model Solved Papers Of 2012 - 2014
computer science question and asnwer

Current affair Quiz 2015 for bank and ssc CSHL

Current Affair Question and answer


Who has stepped down as the Secretary-General of the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) in September 2015 and for how many years he occupied the post?
Answer. Randhir Singh, 24 years

 Nandan Nilekani, in September 2015 has invested in Mubble, a mobile technology startup.Mubble helps smartphone users track and control their telecom spends and their mobile data usage. He is the co-founder of which company?
Answer. Infosys

The ICC on 15th September has announced that former Sri Lanka batsman will step down from the Elite Panel of ICC Match Referees at the end of the year. name the player who will step down ?
Answer. Roshan Mahanama

 Name the bank which plans a capital infusion of about Rs.3000 crore through a combination of bonds and sale of shares to large institutional investors this year to strengthen its operations. Name the bank with its headquarter?
Answer. Syndicate Bank & Manipal

To make classical music easily accessible to smartphone users, which enterprise, has launched an app that opens up a treasure trove of over 8000 recordings. Name the app also?
Answer. Saregama India Ltd & app name is Saregama Classical

The Vice President of India, Mr. Ansari will be in delegation-level talks and sign Memorandums of Understanding in tourism and infrastructure building with which country. Also Name the PM of that country?
Answer. Cambodia,Hun Sen

Name the British author of Indian descent who is among one of six novelists shortlisted for the prestigious Man Booker Prize, 2015 and also name the novel for which he has been shortlisted?
Answer. Sunjeev Sahota And Novel is: The Year of the Runaways

Name the country which is going to unveil its long-awaited new Constitution on September 20. Name its capital also?
Answer. Nepal & Kathmandu

Name the country which has declared on 15th September that it had upgraded and restarted all of its atomic fuel plants, meaning it could possibly make more and more sophisticated nuclear weapons.
Answer. North Korea

 According to the report published by the Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights Investigation, to which country it has called to establish a special court to try the “horrific” abuses committed by the authorities and the rebels in the last phase of their country’s civil war and name the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights as well.
Answer:Sri Lanka & Zeid Ra’ad al-Hussein
Who are the authors of the below mentioned books:

a) 5 Year Old Billionaire-

b) How To Catch A Russian Spy-

c) Farewell Kabul-

d) When The Boss Is Wrong-

Answers

a) Onkar Kishan Khullar

b) Naveed Jamali and Ellis Henican

c) Christina Lamb Obe

d) Sibichen K. Mathew

 The nine-day annual Brahmotsavam of Lord Venkateswara started from 16th September. Name the state where it is happening?
Answers:Tirumala at Tirupati in Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh

 The Union Cabinet gave ex post facto approval on 16th September to provide an additional of how many days of work to Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme beneficiaries during the current financial year wherever drought or natural calamities have been notified?
Answers: An additional 50 days of work

The NSCNK, which abrogated the ceasefire agreement with the government and perpetrated a string of attacks, including killing of 18 soldiers in an ambush in Manipur in June 2015, has been banned for five years on 16th September. What is the full form of NSCNK?

Answers: National Socialist Council of Nagaland-Khaplang
Vice-President Hamid Ansari on 16 September signed how many Memorandums of Understanding with Cambodian Prime Minister Hun Sen following a session of delegation-level talks. Also tell the Mou's signed was related to?
 MOU Signed and these are:
i) On Tourism
ii) On the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation Initiative


The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has granted ‘inprinciple’ approval to how many companies to set up small finance banks. The approval given by RBI will be valid for 18 months to enable the applicants to comply with the requirements. How many applications for small finance banks was received by RBI?
Answers:10 Companies and 72 applications for small finance banks received by RBI.
Sun Pharmaceutical Industries has signed an agreement to acquire which U.S.-based eye care firm? Name the Chairman of Sun Pharmaceutical Industries.
Answers: InSite Vision and the Chairman is Israel Makov

Who won the Moin-ud-Dowla Gold Cup Trophy which was recently concluded in September 2015? Name the sport with which this trophy is associated?
India Cements & It is associated with Cricket.

Who will host the 2022 Asian Games and in which country it is located?
Answers:Hangzhou & China.

Name the player who recently book a berth for the Rio Olympics after she rewrote the National record in shot put?
Manpreet Kaur of Railways

Mobile commerce firm Paytm, plans to invest how much amount in the next two years for rolling out its payment bank services in India? Name the founder of PAYTM ?
It plan to invest upto Rs. 1500 Crores and the founder is Vijay Shekhar Sharma.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) liberalised the external commercial borrowing framework by increasing the limit for Indian companies for raising funds — with minimum average maturity of 3 years — to how much amount from $20 million?
Answer. $50 million

What is the growth rate of the manufacturing sector in the second quarter of financial year 2015-16, which was released recenty?
Answer. 9.3 per cent

 Which telecom gear-maker announced the setting up of a new unit — Industry and Society — which will focus on smart cities, the Digital India campaign and other technology projects from the government?
Answer. Ericsson

Which telecom services provider announced that it will invest Rs 60,000 crore over the next three-years to upgrade its networks with an aim to provide better quality services to its subscribers?
Answer. Bharti Airtel 

Core sector growth in the April-October period was lower at howm much percent in this fiscal year, according to the data released by the Commerce and Industry Ministry?
Answer. 2.5 per cent 

Which country has topped the list of 10 countries that has seen the highest rise in people searching for destinations in the sub-continent?
Answer. Singapore 

Which country's Prime Minister thanked Narendra Modi for his “superb” cooperation and for saving lives of many tourists during the rescue operation in earthquake-hit Nepal?
Answer. Israeli PM,Benjamin Netanyahu 

Name the President of UAE who recently stated that, his country supports humanitarian cooperation with countries facing terrorism and extremism?
Answer. Sheikh Khalifa bin Zayed Al Nahyan 

Name the World Bank Group President who recently said, "Carbon pricing is critical for reducing emissions, preserving our environment and protecting the most vulnerable?
Answer. Jim Yong Kim
 U.N. Secretary General Ban Ki-moon has welcomed the meeting of which countries on the sidelines of the Paris climate summit?
Answer. Between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his Pakistani counterpart Nawaz Sharif

DMRC JE (Electronics) Paper 1- Technical Questions with Answers



1. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Digital modulation techniques are used in satellite communication systems since:
(1) They are easier to handle
(2) Large bandwidth utilization is possible
(3) They have a higher spectral efficiency
(4) They are less prone to interference


Answer : They are less prone to interference

2. How many bits are required to encode 32 level PCM:

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

Answer : 5

3. The noise is more dominant in which of the following:

(1) PAM
(2) PWM
(3) PPM
(4) FSK

Answer : PAM

4. The phase velocity of wave propagating in a hollow metal wave guide is:

(1) Greater than the velocity of the light in free space
(2) Less than the velocity of the light in free space
(3) Equal to the velocity of the light in free space
(4) Equal to the group velocity


Answer : Greater than the velocity of the light in free space

5. The magnitude of the open-circuit and short circuit input impedance of a transmission line are 100 ohm and 25 ohm respectively. The characteristic impedance of line is:

(1) 25 ohm
(2) 50 ohm
(3) 75 ohm
(4) 100 ohm

Answer : 50 ohm

6. The line of sight communication requires transmit and receive antenna to face each other. If the transmit antenna is vertically polarized, for the best reception the receive antenna should be:

(1) Horizontally polarized
(2) Vertically polarized
(3) At 45° with respect to the horizontal polarization
(4) At 45° with respect to the vertical polarization


Answer : Horizontally polarized

7. A network contains linear resistance and ideal voltage source. If the value of all the resistors are doubled, then the voltage across each resistor is:

(1) Halved
(2) Doubled
(3) Increased by four times
(4) Not changed

Answer : Not changed

8.Twelve 1 ohm resistances are used as edge to form a cube. The resistance between two diagonally opposite corners of the cube is:

(1) 5/6 ohm
(2) 1 ohm
(3) 6/5 ohm
(4) 3/2 ohm

Answer :  5/6 ohm

9. An eight bit digital data 10101100 is fed to an ADC. The reference voltage is +10V. The analog output voltage will be:

(1) 1.05V
(2) 6.74V
(3) 10.10V
(4) 5.15V

Answer : 6.74V

10. A series RLC circuit has a resonant frequency of 1 KHz and a quality factor Q = 100. If each of the R,L and C is doubled from its original value, the new Q of the circuit is:

(1) 25
(2) 50
(3) 100
(4) 200

Answer : 200

11. The input to a coherent detector is DSB-SC signal plus noise. The noise at the detector output is:

(1) The in-phase component
(2) The quadrature-component
(3) Zero
(4) The envelope


Answer :  Zero

12. Gunn diode is a:

(1) Negative resistance device
(2) Positive resistance device
(3) High noise device
(4) Low frequency device


Answer : Negative resistance device

13. The intrinsic carrier concentration of silicon sample at 300° K is 2.5×1016/m3. If after doping, the number of majority carriers is 5×1020 /m3, the minority carrier density is:

(1) 1.25×1012/m 3
(2) 0.125×1012/m3
(3) 2.5×1020/m3
(4) 0.5×104/m3

Answer : 1.25×1012/m 3 

14. The unit of ∇× H is:

(1) Ampere
(2) Ampere/meter
(3) Ampere/meter2
(4) Ampere-meter

Answer : Ampere/meter2

15. A PIN diode is:

(1) A metal semiconductor point-contact diode
(2) A microwave mixer diode
(3) Often used as a microwave detector
(4) Suitable for use as a microwave switch


Answer : Suitable for use as a microwave switch

16. 11001, 1001 and 111001 correspond to the 2’s complement representation of which one of the following sets of number?

(1) 25, 9 and 57 respectively
(2) –6, –6 and –6 respectively
(3) –7, –7 and –7 respectively
(4) –25, –9 and –57 respectively


Answer : –7, –7 and –7 respectively

17. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, it is best to use a:

(1) A slotted line
(2) Balun
(3) Directional coupler
(4) Quarter wave line transformer


Answer : Balun

18. Which of the following is used extensively where lowest power consumption is necessary?

(1) CMOS
(2) NMOS
(3) PMOS
(4) Any of the abov

Answer : CMOS 

19. Reflex klystron is a:

(1) Low power generator
(2) High power oscillator
(3) Low gain amplifier
(4) Not an oscillator

Answer : Low power generator

20. If the radiated power of AM transmitter is 10 KW, the power in the carrier for modulation index of 0.6 is nearly:

(1) 8.24 KW
(2) 9.26 KW
(3) 8.47 KW
(4) 9.6 KW

Answer : 8.47 KW

21. The current through 8 ohms branch is:




(1) 1A
(2) 0.5A
(3) 1.5A
(4) None of these

Answer : 0.5A

22. JFET in properly biased condition acts as a:
(1) Current controlled current source
(2) Voltage controlled voltage source
(3) Voltage controlled current source
(4) Impedance controlled current source


Answer : Voltage controlled current source

23. The circuit shown in figure is best described as a:



(1) Bridge rectifier
(2) Ring modulator
(3) Frequency discriminatory
(4) Voltage doubler

Answer : Voltage doubler

24. Which amplifier will be preferred for highest gain?

(1) Darlington pair
(2) Cascade amplifier
(3) Cascode amplifier
(4) Depends on the circuitry


Answer :  Cascode amplifier

25. The Boolean expression for the truth table shown is:





Answer : Option 1

26. Without any additional circuitry, an 8:1 MUX can be used to obtain:

(1) Some but not all Boolean functions of 3 variables
(2) All function of 3 variables but none of 4 variables
(3) All functions of 3 variables and some but not all of 4 variables
(4) All functions of 4 variables


Answer : All functions of 4 variables

27. The resolution of a potentiometer should be:

(1) Zero
(2) Low
(3) High
(4) Infinite

Answer : Infinite

28. Negative feedback in amplifier:

(1) Improves the SNR at input
(2) Improve SNR at output
(3) Reduces distortion
(4) Decreases bandwidth


Answer : Reduces distortion

29. Spectral density expresses:

(1) Average voltage
(2) Average current
(3) Average power in a waveform as a function of frequency
(4) None of these


Answer : Average power in a waveform as a function of frequency

30. Which of the following is used as a data selector?
(1) Encoder
(2) Decoder
(3) Multiplexer
(4) De-multiplexer

Answer : Multiplexer

31. If a signal x(n)=x(–n), then it is called ____ signal:

(1) Odd
(2) Energy
(3) Power
(4) Even

Answer : Even

32. The response of an LTI/LSI system is given by the _______ of input and impulse response:

(1) Convolution
(2) Correlation
(3) Superposition
(4) None
 

Answer : Convolution

33. Companders are used in communication systems to:

(1) Compress bandwidth
(2) To improve frequency response
(3) To improve signal to noise ratio
(4) None of these


Answer : To improve signal to noise ratio

34. ICB0 in a transistor can be reduced by reducing:

(1) IB
(2) VCC
(3) IE
(4) Temperature

Answer : Temperature

34. Light is confined within the core of a simple optical fiber by:

(1) Refraction.
(2) Total internal reflection at the outer edge of the cladding.
(3) Total internal reflection at the core cladding boundary.
(4) Reflection from the fiber's plastic coating.


Answer : Total internal reflection at the outer edge of the cladding.

36. The complement of AB+BC’+CD’ is:

(1) A’CD+B’C’+B’D
(2) A’C’+BC+AB’D’
(3) AC+BC+ABD
(4) A’C’+B’C’+A’B’D’

Answer : A’CD+B’C’+B’D

37. The following expression when simplified will become XY(X’YZ +X’Y’Z’+XY’Z)

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) –1
(4) X

Answer : 0

38. In a PCM system of telemetry, the quantization noise depends on:

(1) The sampling rate and quantization level
(2) The sampling rate only
(3) The number of quantization level
(4) Information provided is not sufficient


Answer : The number of quantization level

39. In PCM system, if we increase the quantization levels from 2 to 8, the relative bandwidth requirements will:

(1) Be doubled
(2) Remain same
(3) Be tripled
(4) Becomes eight times

Answer : Be tripled

40. The modulation system inherently most noise resistant is:

(1) Frequency modulation
(2) Pulse width modulation
(3) Pulse code modulation
(4) Phase modulation


Answer : Pulse code modulation

41. Which of the following microphone does not require polarizing current?

(1) Crystal microphone
(2) Condenser microphone
(3) Carbon microphone
(4) All of the above


Answer : Crystal microphone

42. The large signal bandwidth of an opamp is limited by its:

(1) Loop gain
(2) Slew rate
(3) Output impedance
(4) Input frequency

Answer : Slew rate

43. In an unclocked R-S flip flop made of NOR gates, the forbidden input condition is:

(1) R=0, S=0
(2) R=1, S=0
(3) R=0, S=1
(4) R=1, S=1

Answer : R=1, S=1

44. A phase-locked loop (PLL) is a feedback circuit consisting of a:

(1) Phase detector.
(2) Low-pass filter.
(3) VCO.
(4) All of these

Answer : All of these

45. A 339 IC is an example of a fourteen-pin DIP that can be made to function as a ________:

(1) Comparator
(2) 555 timer
(3) D to A converter
(4) Ladder network


Answer : Comparator

46. Filters with the ___ characteristic are useful when a rapid roll-off is required because it provides a roll-off rate greater than –20/dB/decade/pole:

(1) Butterworth
(2) Chebyshev
(3) Bessel
(4) Elliptical

Answer : Chebyshev

47. Which of the following applications include a phase-locked loop (PLL) circuit?

(1) Modems
(2) AM decoders
(3) Tracking filters
(4) All of these

Answer : All of these

48. Rectification efficiency of a fullwave rectifier without filter is nearly equals to:

(1) 51%
(2) 61%
(3) 71%
(4) 81%

Answer : 81%

49. What is the voltage resolution of an 8-stage ladder network?

(1) Vref /128
(2) Vref /256
(3) Vref /512
(4) Vref /1024

Answer : Vref /256

50. In which region is the operating point stable in tunnel diodes?

(1) Negative-resistance
(2) Positive-resistance
(3) Both negative- and positive-resistance
(4) Neither negative- nor positive-resistance


Answer : Negative-resistance

51. Which of the following diodes is limited to the reverse-bias region in its region of operation?

(1) Schottky
(2) Tunnel
(3) Photodiode
(4) Rectifier

Answer : Photodiode




52. Which of the following semiconductor materials is (are) used for manufacturing solar cells?

(1) Gallium arsenide
(2) Indium arsenide
(3) Cadmium sulfide
(4) All of these

Answer : All of these

53. If Y (s) - {(S 2 - 1)/8}, the network has:

(1) 1 H inductor and 1 F capacitor in parallel
(2) 1 H inductor and 1 F capacitor in series
(3) 1 H inductor and 1 Ω resistor in series
(4) 1 H inductor and 1 Ω resistor in parallel


Answer : 1 H inductor and 1 F capacitor in parallel

54. When the temperature of a doped semiconductor is increased, its conductivity

(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Does not change
(4) Increases or decreases depending on whether it is p-type or n-type


Answer : Increases

55. Schering bridge is used to measure

(1) Frequency
(2) Inductance
(3) Capacitance
(4) Mutual Inductance

Answer : Capacitance

56. A step voltage E is applied to a series R-L circuit. The rate of change of current is maximum at t = _:

(1) Zero
(2) Infinity
(3) L/R
(4) R/L

Answer : Zero

57. PLAs, CPLDs, and FPGAs are all which type of device?

(1) SLD
(2) PLD
(3) EPROM
(4) SRAM

Answer : PLD

58. Holding current for an SCR is best described as:

(1) The minimum current required for turn-off
(2) The current required before an SCR will turn on
(3) The amount of current required to maintain conduction
(4) The gate current required to maintain conduction


Answer : The amount of current required to maintain conduction

59. What type of temperature coefficient do thermistors have?

(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Either positive or negative
(4) None of these

Answer : ​Either positive or negative

60. In a microprocessor:

(1) One machine cycle is equal to one clock cycle
(2) One clock cycle consists of several machine cycles
(3) One machine cycle consists of several clock cycles
(4) One machine cycle is always less than one clock cycle


Answer : One machine cycle consists of several clock cycles

61. In 8085 microprocessor with memory mapped I/O which of the following is true?

(1) I/O devices have 16 bit addresses
(2) I/O devices are accessed during IN and OUT instructions
(3) There can be a maximum of 256 input and 256 output devices
(4) Logic operations can not be performed


Answer :  I/O devices have 16 bit addresses

62. A blank EPROM has:

(1) All bits set to logical 0
(2) All bits set to logical 1
(3) Half the total number of bits set to 0 and remaining half to logical 1
(4) Either (1) or (2)


Answer : All bits set to logical 1

63. One application of a digital multiplexer is to facilitate:

(1) Code conversion
(2) Parity checking
(3) Parallel-to-serial data conversion
(4) Data generation


Answer :  Parallel-to-serial data conversion

64. The coefficient of coupling between two coils is 0.45. The first coil has an inductance of 75 mH and the second coil has an inductance of 105 mH. What is the mutual inductance between the coils?

(1) 3.54 mH
(2) 7.88 mH
(3) 39.9 mH
(4) 189.3 mH

Answer : 39.9 mH

65. The fast carry or look-ahead carry circuits found in most 4-bit parallel-adder circuits:

(1) Increase ripple delay
(2) Add a 1 to complemented inputs
(3) Reduce propagation delay
(4) Determine sign and magnitude


Answer :  Reduce propagation delay

66. To multiply a number by 8 in 8085 we have to use RAL instruction:

(1) Once
(2) Twice
(3) Thrice
(4) Four times

Answer : Thrice

67. An energy signal has G(f) = 10. Its energy density spectrum is:

(1) 10
(2) 100
(3) 50
(4) 20

Answer : 100

68. Feedback factor at the frequency of oscillation of a Wien bridge oscillator is:

(1) 3
(2) 1/3
(3) 1/29
(4) 3/29

Answer : 1/3

69. A 4-bit R/2R digital-to-analog (DAC) converter has a reference of 5 volts. What is the analog output for the input code 1010:
(1) 0.3125 V
(2) 3.125 V
(3) 0.78125 V
(4) –3.125 V

Answer :  3.125 V

70. A quarter wave line open circuited at far end behaves as:

(1) Inductance
(2) L and C in parallel
(3) Capacitance
(4) L and C in series

Answer : L and C in series

71. In a directional coupler:

(1) Isolation (dB) equals coupling plus directivity
(2) Coupling (dB) equals isolation plus directivity
(3) Directivity (dB) equals isolation plus coupling
(4) Isolation (dB) equals (coupling) (directivity)


Answer : Isolation (dB) equals coupling plus directivity

72. In a circular waveguide the dominant mode is:

(1) TE01
(2) TE11
(3) TE20
(4) TE21

Answer : TE11

73. In a klystron amplifier the input cavity is called:

(1) Buncher
(2) Catcher
(3) Pierce gun
(4) Collector

Answer : Buncher

74. A loss less line of characteristic impedance Z0 is terminated in pure reactance of –jZ0 value. VSWR is

(1) 10
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) Infinity

Answer : Infinity

75. The velocity factor of a transmission line depends on:

(1) Temperature
(2) Skin effect
(3) Relative permittivity of dielectric
(4) None of these


Answer : Relative permittivity of dielectric

General science facts in hindi for ssc cgl chsl upsc

  1. सर्वाधिक प्रकाश - संश्लेषणी कि्रया-कलाप प्रकाश के हरे व पीले क्षेत्र में चलता है।
  2. एडस वायरस दोहरी सूची डी0 एन0 ए0 होता है।
  3. शराब पीकर वाहन चालन के लिए श्वसन परीक्षण में यातायात पुलिस फिल्टर पेपर पर हल्दी (टरमरिक) इस्तेमाल करती है।
  4. एंग्लो-नूबियन बकरी की नस्ल है।
  5. अम्लीय किस्म की मिटटी में जिप्सम का प्रयोग करके उसे फसल उगाने के उपयुक्त बनाया जा सकता है।
  6. रेडार का अविष्कार ए0 एच0 टेलर व लियो सी0 यंग ने किया ।
  7. मैडम क्यूरी ने दो बार नोबल पुरस्कार प्राप्त किया है।
  8.  खाध श्रृखला से अभिप्राय एक जीव से दूसरे जीव को ऊर्जा - अंतरण होना है।
  9. सीसा , विशाल संख्या में स्वचालित वाहनों वाले नगर की वायु को प्रदूषित कर देती है।
  10. एस्ट्रोजेन , स्त्रीलिंग हार्मोन है।
  11. खाने का सोडा का रासायनिक नाम सोडियम बार्इकार्वोनेट है।
  12. पर्वतो पर आच्छादित हिम , सूर्य की गर्मी द्वारा एक साथ नही पिघलता क्याकि इसकी विशिष्ट ऊष्मा कम होती है।
  13. परमाणु - पाइल का प्रयोग ताप-नाभिकीय संलयन के प्रचालन में किया जाता है।
  14. कठोर शरीरिक श्रम करने वाले श्रमिकों की हथेंलियों तथा तलवों की त्वचा मोटा अवतत्वक ऊतक हो जाने का कारण है।
  15. मानव शरीर में डीहाइड्रेशन जल की कमी के कारण होता है।
  16. परखनली शिशु के संबंध में अंडे का निशेचन मा के शरीर से बाहर किया जाता है 
  17. किसी वृक्ष की आयु का निर्धारण विकास वलय के आधार पर किया जाता है।
  18. मानव में गुर्दे का रोग कोबाल्ट प्रदूषण के होता है।
  19. मूगफली पौधे के फलों को भूमि के नीचे पाया जाता है।
  20. साइलेंट वैली में दुर्लभ और नष्टप्राय: पशु शेर की पूछ जैसा मैकाक्यू है।
  21. कोर्इ भी नाब डूब जाएगी , अगर वह पानी अपने आयतन के बराबर हटाती है।
  22. क्षुद्रग्रह सूर्य के चारों ओर मंगल और वृहस्पति के बीच चक्कर लगाते है।
  23. ऐक्सो - जीवन विज्ञान में बाहय ग्रहों तथा अंतरिक्ष में जीवन का अध्ययन किया जाता है।
  24. जन्तुओं में वह एन्जाइम प्रणाली नही होती जिसके आधार पर वे पानी से ऊर्जा प्राप्त कर सकते है।
  25. क्लोन एक समान आनुवंशिक संघटन वाली कोशिकाए की कालोनी है।
  26. कीटों द्वारा परागित फूलों को परागकण रूक्ष और चिपचिपे होते है।
  27. अनाज के परिरक्षण के लिए सोडियम बेंजाएट पदार्थ का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
  28. ऐस्बेस्टास द्वारा फैला रोग वातस्फीति होता है।
  29. आख में वर्णदर्शन शंकु की मौजूदगी से प्रभावित हेाता है।
  30. प्रिज्म में प्रकाश के विभिन्न रंगो का विभाजन प्रकाश का परिक्षेपण होता है।
  31. उत्तरी गोलार्ध के दायें पवनों का विक्ष्ेापण पृथ्वी के घूर्णन द्वारा होता है।
  32. यदि स्थिर वेग से चल रही गाडी में बैठा कोर्इ बालक गेंद को वायु में सीधा ऊपर फेंके तो गेंद उसके हाथ में गिरेगी।
  33. पृथ्वी के गुरूत्वाकर्शण क्षेत्र की तीव्रता विषुवत रेखा पर होती है।
  34. बाइसिकल के पहिए में प्रयुक्त अरें उसका जडत्व आघूर्ण बढाती है।
  35. ट्रांसफार्मर अन्योय प्रेरण के सिध्दांत पर कार्य करता है।
  36. प्राकृतिक रबड को अधिक मजबूत और उच्छल बनाने के लिए उसमें सल्फर मिलाया जाता है।
  37. डिटरजेंट वसा अम्लो के सोडियम लवण होते है।
  38. विकिरण चिकित्सा में आरगान गैस का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
  39. स्टील में .1 से 2 प्रतिशत कार्बन होता है।
  40. मेघ बीजन (क्लाउड सीडिंग) या कृत्रिम वर्षा के लिए आम तौर पर सिल्वर आयोडायड प्रयुक्त रासायनिक द्रव्य है।
  41. एक एलाय , जर्मन सिल्वर में सिल्वर धातु नही होती है।
  42. आक्सीजन , जो जीवन के लिए अत्यावश्यक है , प्रकाश संशलेषण का उत्पाद है जल से आती है।
  43. मानव वयस्क के मस्तिश्क का वनज 1200 से 1300 ग्राम होता है।
  44. पुरुष में असिथयों की कुल संख्या 206 होती है।
  45. एक फोटो सेल में प्रकाश ऊर्जा को रासायनिक ऊर्जा में परिवर्तित किया जाता है।
  46.  विश्व्  स्वास्थ्य संगठन के अनुसार बर्ड फ्लू के वाइरस का संचरण उस भोजन के माध्यम से नही हो सकता जिसे 70 डिग्री सेलिसयस से ऊपर पकाया गया हो।
  47. कंप्यूटर के लिए आर्इ सी चिप आमतौर पर सिलिकान के बनाये जाते है।
  48. शीतकाल में एक मोटी कमीज की अपेक्षा दो पतली कमीजें हमें अधिक गरम रखती है क्येाकि दो कमीजों के बीच वायु की परत रोधी माध्यम के रूप में काम करती है।
  49. पृथ्वी के वायुमंडल की आयनमंडल परत रेडियो तरंगो को वापस पृथ्वी के पृष्ठ पर परावर्तित करती है।
  50. ध्वनि निर्वात से नही गुजरती है।
  51. पेट्रोल से लगी आग को बुझाने में जल प्रभावी नही होता क्योकि जल और पेट्रोल एक दूसरे में अमिश्रणीय है और पेट्रोल ऊपरी परत बनाता है अत: जलता रहता है।
  52. गैस के गुब्बारों में हाइड्रोजन की जगह हीलियम गैस का प्रयोग किया जाता है क्योकि यह अदाह है।
  53. फलों को कृत्रिम रूप से पकाने के लिये एसिटिलीन गैस है।
  54. माणिक्य और नीलम ऐलुमिनियम के आक्साइड है।
  55. विटामिन बी 12 को अपनी सक्रियता के लिए कोबाल्ट की आवश्यकता होती है
  56. अश्रु गैस का घटक क्लोरोपिकि्रन है ।
  57. दृढतांक अनुदैध्र्य प्रतिबल के साथ अनुदैध्र्य विकृति का अनुपात है।
  58. गैस में ध्वनि संचरण में रूद्वोश्म संपीडन और विरलन से होता है।
  59. परमाणु घडी सीजियम के संक्रमण पर आधारित है।
  60. अवतल लेंस में हमेशा आभासी और सीधा प्रतिबिम्ब बनता है।
  61. भारी पानी का क्वथनांक साधारण पानी से कम नही हो सकता है।
  62. प्रकाश संशलेषण में ऊर्जा मुक्त होती है।
  63. वृक्ष के तनो में रहने वाले प्राणियों को वृक्षवासी कहा जाता है।
  64. माइटोकानिड्रअन को सेल का पावर प्लांट भी कहा जाता है।
  65. सिरके का रासायनिक नाम ऐसीटिक ऐसिड है।
  66. अधिकतम जैव विविधता वाला प्रदेश उश्ण कटिबंधीय होता है।
  67. वातावरण के अंदर क्षैतिज ऊष्मा अंतरण को संवहन कहा जाता है।
  68. भारतीय मानक समय 82.5 डिग्री र्इ0 रेखांश पर अपनाया जाता है।
  69. तट पर अधिक बल के साथ पहुचने वाली भूकम्पी सागर तरंगो को सुनामी कहा जाता है।
  70. पवन की अपोहन कि्रया के कारण बने गर्तो को यारडांग कहा जाता है।
  71. शोर को डेसिबल में मापा जाता है।

Syllabus , Books and Previous Year Question Paper of UP Police SI Exam

The Uttar Pradesh Police Department is inviting applications for the recruitment on 2500 posts of Sub-Inspector (SI) under its fresh SI recruitment 2015. now those who are prepare for this examination or who will apply for this posts can check here the latest exam syllabus and previous exam question paper also download pdf file in Hindi of UP SI exam syllabus from here check the full details here



UP Police SI Syllabus 2015 :-

General Hindi:- Tatsam & Tadbhav, Sandhi, Samas, Ras, Paryaywachi, Lokokti and Muhavre, Ling, Vachan, Kaarak, Kaal, Beloom, Anekarthi Shabd, Alankar.

Law & Constitution:- General Knowledge about Indian Constitution, Aim of Constitution, Fundamental Rights, Directive principles, Rules & Regulations of constitutional Amendments, All India Service, Information about social Law related to women, children, Reservation of SC/ ST, Environment, Wild Life Conservation, Human Rights, Traffic Rules, National Security Issues, Principle of Crime Punishment, Right of Self Defence, General Knowledge about Law.

General Knowledge :- Questions will be designed to test the ability of the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighboring countries especially pertaining to Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic scene, General Polity including Indian Constitution and Scientific Research etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline. This is topic is huge so applicants are advised to go through Newspaper daily and read good GK books and other notes.

General Intelligence:- It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. The test will include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discriminating observation, relationship concepts, verbal and figure classification, arithmetical number series, non-verbal series etc. The test will also include questions designed to test the candidates’ abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationship, arithmetical computation and other analytical functions.


Physical Efficiency Test (PET)

This test is only for qualified candidates in Documentation & PST. There will be a race in this test of qualifying nature.
Race –
Male – 4.8 KMs in 24 minutes.
Female – 2.4 KMs in 16 minutes.

Exam Pattern:- 

Mains written exam will be of 400 marks consisting of multiple choice questions.

Previous Year Papers of UP SI Exam :-

Books for UP SI Exam :-