Showing posts with label MODEL PAPER. Show all posts
Showing posts with label MODEL PAPER. Show all posts

Railway JE exam preparation book

You want to get a job in Indian Railways through the RRB Junior Engineer (JE) exam. Since there are 13,487 vacancies for the Railway Junior Engineer exam, you must start your exam preparation with the right strategy and the best study material or Best Books for RRB JE Exam.
In this post we provide a list of books that are highly recommended by experts for RRB JE preparation. This will provide you that much needed extra edge over other applicants. Read this article to get the list of Best Books for RRB JE Exam and kick-start your preparation for the CBT (Computer Based Test) RRB Junior Engineer (JE).

The Railway Recruitment Board has invited the eligible candidates to fill the 13,487 Junior Engineer (JE), Junior Engineer (IT), Depot Material Superintendent (DMS) and Chemical & Metallurgical Assistant (CMA) Posts. Candidates who want to make their career in the Railway jobs those can apply online for RRB JE Recruitment 2019 on or before last date i.e. 31st January 2019.


Top 5 Best Books for RRB JE Exam 2019

Wiley’s Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Goalpost Solved Papers and Practice Tests by DT Editorial Services
Guide to Rrb Junior Engineer - Electrical (English, Book, Disha Experts)
RRB - Electrical / Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering Exam (For Section Engineer & Junior Engineer) Practice Work Book
RRB Junior Engineer Recruitment Examination 2018-2019 by GKP
RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) 2019 - Junior Engineer CBT -I & II - Mechanical & Allied Engineering (ENGLISH, Paperback, GKP)
Recommended Notes & Books for Junior Engineer
The list of Recommended Books for Mathematics, Reasoning, General Science and General Awareness.

A. Mathematics Books for RRB JE Exam preparation

Name of BookAuthor/ PublisherCLICK HERE
Practice Book on Quicker MathsM.Tyra, K.Kundan/ Magical Book Series
Quantitative Aptitude for Competitive ExaminationsR.S Aggarwal/ S.Chand Publisher
Fast Track Objective ArithmeticRajesh Varma/ Arihant Publishers

B. General Intelligence Reasoning Books for RRB JE Exam preparation

Name of BookAuthor/ PublisherCLICK HERE
Test of ReasoningEdgar Thorpe/ Pearson
A Modern Approach to Verbal & Non-Verbal ReasoningR.S Aggarwal/ S.Chand Publisher

C. General Science Books for RRB JE Exam preparation

Name of BookPublisherCLICK HERE
Lucent’s General Knowledge
(Science section)		 Lucent Publication

Question and answer for Electronics Engg Exam

Some of my reader asked me to provide Question and answer for Electronics Engg Exam. so i collect some importance questions and answer related to electronics engg. that asked in DMRC , BHEL , RRB UPPCL.

There are many good Electronics Engineering Examinations Preparation Books which have proved to very helpful. These books include the test pattern, a well designed study strategy, old question papers and some very useful ticks to save time.

DMRC JE (Electronics) Paper 1- Technical Questions with Answers



1. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Digital modulation techniques are used in satellite communication systems since:
(1) They are easier to handle
(2) Large bandwidth utilization is possible
(3) They have a higher spectral efficiency
(4) They are less prone to interference

Answer : They are less prone to interference

2. How many bits are required to encode 32 level PCM:
(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

Answer : 5

3. The noise is more dominant in which of the following:
(1) PAM
(2) PWM
(3) PPM
(4) FSK

Answer : PAM

4. The phase velocity of wave propagating in a hollow metal wave guide is:
(1) Greater than the velocity of the light in free space
(2) Less than the velocity of the light in free space
(3) Equal to the velocity of the light in free space
(4) Equal to the group velocity

Answer : Greater than the velocity of the light in free space

5. The magnitude of the open-circuit and short circuit input impedance of a transmission line are 100 ohm and 25 ohm respectively. The characteristic impedance of line is:
(1) 25 ohm
(2) 50 ohm
(3) 75 ohm
(4) 100 ohm

Answer : 50 ohm

6. The line of sight communication requires transmit and receive antenna to face each other. If the transmit antenna is vertically polarized, for the best reception the receive antenna should be:
(1) Horizontally polarized
(2) Vertically polarized
(3) At 45° with respect to the horizontal polarization
(4) At 45° with respect to the vertical polarization

Answer : Horizontally polarized

7. A network contains linear resistance and ideal voltage source. If the value of all the resistors are doubled, then the voltage across each resistor is:
(1) Halved
(2) Doubled
(3) Increased by four times
(4) Not changed

Answer : Not changed

8.Twelve 1 ohm resistances are used as edge to form a cube. The resistance between two diagonally opposite corners of the cube is:
(1) 5/6 ohm
(2) 1 ohm
(3) 6/5 ohm
(4) 3/2 ohm

Answer :  5/6 ohm

9. An eight bit digital data 10101100 is fed to an ADC. The reference voltage is +10V. The analog output voltage will be:
(1) 1.05V
(2) 6.74V
(3) 10.10V
(4) 5.15V

Answer : 6.74V

10. A series RLC circuit has a resonant frequency of 1 KHz and a quality factor Q = 100. If each of the R,L and C is doubled from its original value, the new Q of the circuit is:
(1) 25
(2) 50
(3) 100
(4) 200

Answer : 200

11. The input to a coherent detector is DSB-SC signal plus noise. The noise at the detector output is:
(1) The in-phase component
(2) The quadrature-component
(3) Zero
(4) The envelope

Answer :  Zero

12. Gunn diode is a:
(1) Negative resistance device
(2) Positive resistance device
(3) High noise device
(4) Low frequency device

Answer : Negative resistance device

13. The intrinsic carrier concentration of silicon sample at 300° K is 2.5×1016/m3. If after doping, the number of majority carriers is 5×1020 /m3, the minority carrier density is:
(1) 1.25×1012/m 3
(2) 0.125×1012/m3
(3) 2.5×1020/m3
(4) 0.5×104/m3

Answer : 1.25×1012/m 3 

14. The unit of ∇× H is:
(1) Ampere
(2) Ampere/meter
(3) Ampere/meter2
(4) Ampere-meter

Answer : Ampere/meter2

15. A PIN diode is:
(1) A metal semiconductor point-contact diode
(2) A microwave mixer diode
(3) Often used as a microwave detector
(4) Suitable for use as a microwave switch

Answer : Suitable for use as a microwave switch

16. 11001, 1001 and 111001 correspond to the 2’s complement representation of which one of the following sets of number?
(1) 25, 9 and 57 respectively
(2) –6, –6 and –6 respectively
(3) –7, –7 and –7 respectively
(4) –25, –9 and –57 respectively

Answer : –7, –7 and –7 respectively

17. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, it is best to use a:
(1) A slotted line
(2) Balun
(3) Directional coupler
(4) Quarter wave line transformer

Answer : Balun

18. Which of the following is used extensively where lowest power consumption is necessary?
(1) CMOS
(2) NMOS
(3) PMOS
(4) Any of the abov

Answer : CMOS 

19. Reflex klystron is a:
(1) Low power generator
(2) High power oscillator
(3) Low gain amplifier
(4) Not an oscillator

Answer : Low power generator

20. If the radiated power of AM transmitter is 10 KW, the power in the carrier for modulation index of 0.6 is nearly:
(1) 8.24 KW
(2) 9.26 KW
(3) 8.47 KW
(4) 9.6 KW

Answer : 8.47 KW

21. The current through 8 ohms branch is:



(1) 1A
(2) 0.5A
(3) 1.5A
(4) None of these

Answer : 0.5A

22. JFET in properly biased condition acts as a:
(1) Current controlled current source
(2) Voltage controlled voltage source
(3) Voltage controlled current source
(4) Impedance controlled current source

Answer : Voltage controlled current source

23. The circuit shown in figure is best described as a:


(1) Bridge rectifier
(2) Ring modulator
(3) Frequency discriminatory
(4) Voltage doubler

Answer : Voltage doubler

24. Which amplifier will be preferred for highest gain?
(1) Darlington pair
(2) Cascade amplifier
(3) Cascode amplifier
(4) Depends on the circuitry

Answer :  Cascode amplifier

25. The Boolean expression for the truth table shown is:




Answer : Option 1

26. Without any additional circuitry, an 8:1 MUX can be used to obtain:
(1) Some but not all Boolean functions of 3 variables
(2) All function of 3 variables but none of 4 variables
(3) All functions of 3 variables and some but not all of 4 variables
(4) All functions of 4 variables

Answer : All functions of 4 variables

27. The resolution of a potentiometer should be:
(1) Zero
(2) Low
(3) High
(4) Infinite

Answer : Infinite

28. Negative feedback in amplifier:
(1) Improves the SNR at input
(2) Improve SNR at output
(3) Reduces distortion
(4) Decreases bandwidth

Answer : Reduces distortion

29. Spectral density expresses:
(1) Average voltage
(2) Average current
(3) Average power in a waveform as a function of frequency
(4) None of these

Answer : Average power in a waveform as a function of frequency

30. Which of the following is used as a data selector?
(1) Encoder
(2) Decoder
(3) Multiplexer
(4) De-multiplexer

Answer : Multiplexer

31. If a signal x(n)=x(–n), then it is called ____ signal:
(1) Odd
(2) Energy
(3) Power
(4) Even

Answer : Even

32. The response of an LTI/LSI system is given by the _______ of input and impulse response:
(1) Convolution
(2) Correlation
(3) Superposition
(4) None
 
Answer : Convolution

33. Companders are used in communication systems to:
(1) Compress bandwidth
(2) To improve frequency response
(3) To improve signal to noise ratio
(4) None of these

Answer : To improve signal to noise ratio

34. ICB0 in a transistor can be reduced by reducing:
(1) IB
(2) VCC
(3) IE
(4) Temperature

Answer : Temperature

34. Light is confined within the core of a simple optical fiber by:
(1) Refraction.
(2) Total internal reflection at the outer edge of the cladding.
(3) Total internal reflection at the core cladding boundary.
(4) Reflection from the fiber's plastic coating.

Answer : Total internal reflection at the outer edge of the cladding.

36. The complement of AB+BC’+CD’ is:
(1) A’CD+B’C’+B’D
(2) A’C’+BC+AB’D’
(3) AC+BC+ABD
(4) A’C’+B’C’+A’B’D’

Answer : A’CD+B’C’+B’D

37. The following expression when simplified will become XY(X’YZ +X’Y’Z’+XY’Z)
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) –1
(4) X

Answer : 0

38. In a PCM system of telemetry, the quantization noise depends on:
(1) The sampling rate and quantization level
(2) The sampling rate only
(3) The number of quantization level
(4) Information provided is not sufficient

Answer : The number of quantization level

39. In PCM system, if we increase the quantization levels from 2 to 8, the relative bandwidth requirements will:
(1) Be doubled
(2) Remain same
(3) Be tripled
(4) Becomes eight times

Answer : Be tripled

40. The modulation system inherently most noise resistant is:
(1) Frequency modulation
(2) Pulse width modulation
(3) Pulse code modulation
(4) Phase modulation

Answer : Pulse code modulation

41. Which of the following microphone does not require polarizing current?
(1) Crystal microphone
(2) Condenser microphone
(3) Carbon microphone
(4) All of the above

Answer : Crystal microphone

42. The large signal bandwidth of an opamp is limited by its:
(1) Loop gain
(2) Slew rate
(3) Output impedance
(4) Input frequency

Answer : Slew rate

43. In an unclocked R-S flip flop made of NOR gates, the forbidden input condition is:
(1) R=0, S=0
(2) R=1, S=0
(3) R=0, S=1
(4) R=1, S=1

Answer : R=1, S=1

44. A phase-locked loop (PLL) is a feedback circuit consisting of a:
(1) Phase detector.
(2) Low-pass filter.
(3) VCO.
(4) All of these

Answer : All of these

45. A 339 IC is an example of a fourteen-pin DIP that can be made to function as a ________:
(1) Comparator
(2) 555 timer
(3) D to A converter
(4) Ladder network

Answer : Comparator

46. Filters with the ___ characteristic are useful when a rapid roll-off is required because it provides a roll-off rate greater than –20/dB/decade/pole:
(1) Butterworth
(2) Chebyshev
(3) Bessel
(4) Elliptical

Answer : Chebyshev

47. Which of the following applications include a phase-locked loop (PLL) circuit?
(1) Modems
(2) AM decoders
(3) Tracking filters
(4) All of these

Answer : All of these

48. Rectification efficiency of a fullwave rectifier without filter is nearly equals to:
(1) 51%
(2) 61%
(3) 71%
(4) 81%

Answer : 81%

49. What is the voltage resolution of an 8-stage ladder network?
(1) Vref /128
(2) Vref /256
(3) Vref /512
(4) Vref /1024

Answer : Vref /256

50. In which region is the operating point stable in tunnel diodes?
(1) Negative-resistance
(2) Positive-resistance
(3) Both negative- and positive-resistance
(4) Neither negative- nor positive-resistance

Answer : Negative-resistance

51. Which of the following diodes is limited to the reverse-bias region in its region of operation?
(1) Schottky
(2) Tunnel
(3) Photodiode
(4) Rectifier

Answer : Photodiode


52. Which of the following semiconductor materials is (are) used for manufacturing solar cells?
(1) Gallium arsenide
(2) Indium arsenide
(3) Cadmium sulfide
(4) All of these

Answer : All of these

53. If Y (s) - {(S 2 - 1)/8}, the network has:
(1) 1 H inductor and 1 F capacitor in parallel
(2) 1 H inductor and 1 F capacitor in series
(3) 1 H inductor and 1 Ω resistor in series
(4) 1 H inductor and 1 Ω resistor in parallel

Answer : 1 H inductor and 1 F capacitor in parallel

54. When the temperature of a doped semiconductor is increased, its conductivity
(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Does not change
(4) Increases or decreases depending on whether it is p-type or n-type

Answer : Increases

55. Schering bridge is used to measure
(1) Frequency
(2) Inductance
(3) Capacitance
(4) Mutual Inductance

Answer : Capacitance

56. A step voltage E is applied to a series R-L circuit. The rate of change of current is maximum at t = _:
(1) Zero
(2) Infinity
(3) L/R
(4) R/L

Answer : Zero

57. PLAs, CPLDs, and FPGAs are all which type of device?
(1) SLD
(2) PLD
(3) EPROM
(4) SRAM

Answer : PLD

58. Holding current for an SCR is best described as:
(1) The minimum current required for turn-off
(2) The current required before an SCR will turn on
(3) The amount of current required to maintain conduction
(4) The gate current required to maintain conduction

Answer : The amount of current required to maintain conduction

59. What type of temperature coefficient do thermistors have?
(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Either positive or negative
(4) None of these

Answer : ​Either positive or negative

60. In a microprocessor:
(1) One machine cycle is equal to one clock cycle
(2) One clock cycle consists of several machine cycles
(3) One machine cycle consists of several clock cycles
(4) One machine cycle is always less than one clock cycle

Answer : One machine cycle consists of several clock cycles

61. In 8085 microprocessor with memory mapped I/O which of the following is true?
(1) I/O devices have 16 bit addresses
(2) I/O devices are accessed during IN and OUT instructions
(3) There can be a maximum of 256 input and 256 output devices
(4) Logic operations can not be performed

Answer :  I/O devices have 16 bit addresses

62. A blank EPROM has:
(1) All bits set to logical 0
(2) All bits set to logical 1
(3) Half the total number of bits set to 0 and remaining half to logical 1
(4) Either (1) or (2)

Answer : All bits set to logical 1

63. One application of a digital multiplexer is to facilitate:
(1) Code conversion
(2) Parity checking
(3) Parallel-to-serial data conversion
(4) Data generation

Answer :  Parallel-to-serial data conversion

64. The coefficient of coupling between two coils is 0.45. The first coil has an inductance of 75 mH and the second coil has an inductance of 105 mH. What is the mutual inductance between the coils?
(1) 3.54 mH
(2) 7.88 mH
(3) 39.9 mH
(4) 189.3 mH

Answer : 39.9 mH

65. The fast carry or look-ahead carry circuits found in most 4-bit parallel-adder circuits:
(1) Increase ripple delay
(2) Add a 1 to complemented inputs
(3) Reduce propagation delay
(4) Determine sign and magnitude

Answer :  Reduce propagation delay

66. To multiply a number by 8 in 8085 we have to use RAL instruction:
(1) Once
(2) Twice
(3) Thrice
(4) Four times

Answer : Thrice

67. An energy signal has G(f) = 10. Its energy density spectrum is:
(1) 10
(2) 100
(3) 50
(4) 20

Answer : 100

68. Feedback factor at the frequency of oscillation of a Wien bridge oscillator is:
(1) 3
(2) 1/3
(3) 1/29
(4) 3/29

Answer : 1/3

69. A 4-bit R/2R digital-to-analog (DAC) converter has a reference of 5 volts. What is the analog output for the input code 1010:
(1) 0.3125 V
(2) 3.125 V
(3) 0.78125 V
(4) –3.125 V

Answer :  3.125 V

70. A quarter wave line open circuited at far end behaves as:
(1) Inductance
(2) L and C in parallel
(3) Capacitance
(4) L and C in series

Answer : L and C in series

71. In a directional coupler:
(1) Isolation (dB) equals coupling plus directivity
(2) Coupling (dB) equals isolation plus directivity
(3) Directivity (dB) equals isolation plus coupling
(4) Isolation (dB) equals (coupling) (directivity)

Answer : Isolation (dB) equals coupling plus directivity

72. In a circular waveguide the dominant mode is:
(1) TE01
(2) TE11
(3) TE20
(4) TE21

Answer : TE11

73. In a klystron amplifier the input cavity is called:
(1) Buncher
(2) Catcher
(3) Pierce gun
(4) Collector

Answer : Buncher

74. A loss less line of characteristic impedance Z0 is terminated in pure reactance of –jZ0 value. VSWR is
(1) 10
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) Infinity

Answer : Infinity

75. The velocity factor of a transmission line depends on:
(1) Temperature
(2) Skin effect
(3) Relative permittivity of dielectric
(4) None of these

Answer : Relative permittivity of dielectric

SSC Preparation Books and Resources for LDC and DEO Exam

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) conducts Written Examination for the recruitment of candidates for DEO and LDC in various departments. All Candidates are anxious and wants to perform well in the SSC examination. Some of Candidates may join coaching classes and some of Candidate go for self study. In this post I just explained some tips and tricks to crack the SSC exams . Without making a strategy you can’t qualify this examination. So make your preparation plan on the basis of question paper pattern given by SSC for 10 +2 exam.
The questions paper includes 4 Sections . The total of 200 multiple choice questions will be asked.
1: General Intelligence,
2: English Language (Basic Knowledge),
3: Quantitative Aptitude (Basic Arithmetic Skills),
4: General Awareness.
Note : Negative marking of .25 marks for each wrong answer.

Quantitative Aptitude And GI:

Speed is essential in this part so prepare shortcut and tricks. Make practice on every topics . solve some questions as your own after studying each trick.  For QA  you have to read some of the topics like Arithmetic, Number System, and Fundamental Arithmetical operation, Algebra, geometry, MENSURATION, trigonometry, Statistical Chart etc. Good command over GI Concept will save lot of time that one can spend on other sections
      Resources for SSC LDC: 

General Awareness :

For the preparation of General Awareness you can use news paper, and Pratiyogita Darpan magazine. Read Lucent General Knowledge foe general study section.
       Resources: 

English:

For English, give importance to synonyms, antinomians, common mistakes etc for this you may need to buy some grammar book. Also give priority to the general knowledge and mathematics over English and regional language.
       Resources:

Some tips when you attend the exam:
  1. Always attempt your strongest section in which you are good.
  2. Don't stick to any question for long period of time. 
  3. Carefully read and follow all the instruction given in the exam paper.
  4. Always believe in your preparation and yourself and have faith that you can crack the paper.
Best Book for SSC LDC and DEO:



Syllabus , Books and Previous Year Question Paper of DMRC

Delhi Metro is a world-class metro. DMRC conducts recruitment for Junior Engineers in fields of Electrical, Electronics, Mechanical, Civil , Station Controllers, SSA and many more posts. DMRC conducts their exams at least once in year for all post. Diploma/Degree in Respective field are the essential qualification for engineering post . As you all know I am related to engineering field so in this post I explains about engineering field. 
For the post of Jr.Engineers (Electrical/Electronics/Mechanical/Civil), the selection methodology will comprise three-stage process –

i) Written Test (two papers).
ii) Personal Interview.
iii) Medical examination.

The written test will consist of two papers( Paper-I and Paper-II, to be held on the same day in the same center) . Paper I will consist of multiple-choice objective type questions and Paper -II will consist of subjective type questions.
Paper-I will consist of multiple-choice objective type questions, on below stated subjects.
  1. Aptitude ( Around 20 question)
  2. General Awareness ( Around 20 question)
  3. English ( Around 20 question)
  4. Subject Knowledge ( Around 60 question)
Paper-II will consist of subjective type questions on Paragraph Writing, Comprehension, Essay and questions on Science &Technology matter, in English Medium to judge the candidate’s comprehension skills & test of English language.

Previous Year Papers of DMRC:


RRB Group D previous year Questions

 1. Find the odd-one out?
(A)Desk
(B) Chair
(C)Table
(D) Computer

2. Which royal dynasty did Mahavir belong to?
(A) Lichchhivi
(B) Kapilvastu
(C) Shatruk Kshatriya
(D) Satwahan

3. Which of the following Governor General started postage stamp in India?
(A) Lord Auckland
(B) Lord William Bentinck
(C) Lord Daihousie
(D) Lord Canning

4. Who is known as father of ‘Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Prof. Dantewala
(C) Prof. Marshall
(D) Prof. .J. K. Mehta

5. The headquarters of NABARD is situated at ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Chennai
(D) Jaipur

6. Which of the following states has the longest boarder line?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamilnadu

7. A.T.M. stands for?
(A) Automatic Teller Machine
(B) Automated Teller Machine
(C) Automatic Tally Machine
(D) Automated Tally Mechanism

8. ‘Kaling’ award is given by?
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNESCO
(C) World Bank
(D) World Trade Organisation
9. Which of the following is used as an anesthetic?
(A) Chlorine
(B) Helium
(C) Nitrus Oxide
(D) Carbon dioxide

10. Which of the following is chemically Vitamin ‘C’?
(A) Tartaric Acid
(B) Acetic Acid
(C) Ascorbic Acid
(D) Sulphuric Acid

1:D, 2:C, 3:C, 4:A, 5:B, 6:A, 7:B, 8:B, 9:C, 10:C